2013年7月31日星期三

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Exam Code: 000-274

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)

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NO.1 A company wants to enforce the run-time SOA governance using service level agreement (SLA)
and service level definitions (SLD) policy attachments for a line of business. The solution
implementer has configured a web service proxy service that uses a WebSphere Service Registry
and Repository (WSRR) subscription to meet this requirement. The WSRR server hosts the
governance enablement profile that contains SLA and SLD entities. The SLA objects in WSRR are
in SLA Active State. During a test run, it was identified that SLA policies from WSRR are not
enforced. How can the solution implementer resolve this situation to enforce SLA policies?
(choose 2) Verify that the:
A. SLA policies are accurate using probe.
B. SLA Enforcement Mode is set as "reject".
C. WSRR server object is set to version 7.5 or later.
D. WS-Policy Enforcement Mode is set as "enforce".
E. Fetch Policy Attachments option for the WSRR Subscription is set as "on".
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 A solution implementer needs to create a new service on a DataPower virtual appliance. The new server needs to virtualize the back end server IP address from the end user while exposing
operations of a web service described by a given WSDL. Service Level Monitoring (SLM) is also to
be incorporated at the port level. Which service type should the solution implementer configure?
A. XML Firewall
B. Web Service Proxy
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.3 A web service proxy is receiving orders from partners as SOAP messages. The service is
required
to reject messages if the total order cost in the message does not match the sum of the individual
item costs. What can the solution implementer do to support this requirement?
A. Create an XML Schema that enforces the above business requirements and uses this schema
in a Validate action.
B. Create a style sheet which performs the mathematical comparison and uses either a
<dp:accept> or <dp:reject>, and use this in a Filter action.
C. Configure an SLM Statement with the Threshold Level that computes the total order cost, and if
it does not match the total value then throttlethe transaction.
D. Define the requirement in a WS-Policy attachment for the service. The web service proxy will
then automatically perform the mathematicalcomparison and reject any invalid messages.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company-wide Certificate Authority (CA) provides its internal CA root and intermediary
certificates to the solution implementer to use for the creation of Validation Credentials that
validates several back end servers using SSL. The two lines of business in the company provide
services on two different domains on DataPower and two different banks of servers on the back
end. The requirement is to share a single copy of the CA certificates to create validation
credentials in two domains for both the lines of business to simplify maintenance. How can the
solution implementer satisfy the requirement?
A. Store the CA certificates in the sharedcert: folder from the default domain.
B. Store the CA certificates in the store:///cert folder from the default domain.
C. Create Validation Credentials in the default domain so it can be shared across all the domains.
D. Store the certificate in the cert: folder in any of the two domains and mark the certificate as
shared.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A financial services company (Company) is using a DataPower appliance to securely access an
external service provider (Partner) that processes SOAP/HTTPS payment transactions and
returns the responses to the requesting application in the Company with payment confirmations.
The Partner requires that Company establish non-repudiation so that the financial services
company cannot deny that the payment transaction was originated by them. The Company
requires that the confirmation sent back from the Partner also requires non-repudiation. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing Company public certificate and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingPartner private key
B. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing the private key of Partner and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingCompany public certificate
C. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the Company private key and Response
Rule must Verify with crypto object containingPartner public certificate
D. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the public certificate of Partner and
Response Rule must Verify with crypto objectcontaining Company private key
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-744

Exam Name: IBM (DS4000 Technical Version 1)

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NO.1 What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.2 How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?
A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu
Answer: D

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NO.3 To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide
certain information to IBM. This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional
information?
A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level
Answer: A

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NO.4 When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]
How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?
A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Answer: B

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NO.5 In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on
logical drive" indicate?
A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use
RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. What is a possible concern in this situation?
A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times
Answer: A

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NO.7 In the exhibit, which management method is being used?
A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?
A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800.
Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are
well within the DS4800 performance specifications. Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the
problem?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?
A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed in the
proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded at the
same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller
firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded at
different times.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered
Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. How many Storage Partitions are used in
this configuration?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.12 You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from
headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this
approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control over
data going to the remote site. What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?
A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager
Answer: D

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NO.13 What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?
A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?
A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What best describes a drive in eplaced status?
A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery
process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active
drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?
A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacity
from use.
Answer: B

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NO.17 When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository
logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source
logical drive. By default, what is its size?
A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume
Answer: B

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NO.18 When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?
A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline
Answer: C

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NO.19 When configuring a customer's multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?
A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives
Answer: B

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NO.20 In addition to the storage administrator's e-mail address, what information do you need to set up
e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?
A. sender's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
B. sender's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
C. storage administrator's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
D. storage administrator's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-807

Exam Name: IBM (Web Services Dev for IBM Web Sphere App Server V6.1)

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NO.1 By default, which security token type does WebSphere Application Server V6.1 NOT support?
A. username token
B. binary security token, including the X.509 certificate
C. LTPA token
D. Kerberos token
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which server-side configuration task should be performed to reduce the chances of a replay attack?
A. Add a binary security token in the Request Generator Configuration -> Security Token section
B. Require a timestamp in the Request Consumer Configuration -> Add Timestamp section
C. Add a nonce word to encrypted parts, through the Request Generator Configuration -> Confidentiality
section
D. Require a nonce word in digital signatures, through the Request Consumer Configuration -> Required
Integrity section
Answer: D

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NO.3 WSDL faults are mapped to which three Java classes?
A. javax.wsdl.WSDLFault
B. javax.wsdl.WSDLException
C. java.rmi.RemoteException
D. javax.xml.rpc.handler.Exception
E. javax.xml.rpc.soap.SOAPFaultException
F. Service-specific Java exception
Answer: CEF

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NO.4 Which task can the _setProperty method in the javax.xml.rpc.Stub interface be used to perform?
A. To configure the document style in the SOAP message
B. To change the parameter of a Web service operation
C. To modify the target service endpoint address
D. To enable Transport Level Security (TLS)
Answer: C

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NO.5 When creating an EJB Web service using the WSDL2Java command, what must be included on the
command line?
A. type ejb
B. implementation ejb
C. container ejb
D. create ejb
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which command line utility can be use to create a Web service using a bottom-up approach?
A. Java2WSDL
B. WSDL2Java
C. Java2WS
D. XML2WSDL
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which interface in SAAJ generically represents any literal part in a SOAP message?
A. javax.xml.soap.Text
B. javax.xml.soap.Node
C. javax.xml.soap.DetailEntry
D. javax.xml.soap.SOAPElement
E. javax.xml.soap.SOAPBodyElement
Answer: D

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NO.8 In which scenario should Web service traffic be secured at the transport level over the message level?
A. Security information must be kept intact from the client to the Web service, regardless of the underlying
transport.
B. Messages are passed between multiple intermediaries, multiple transports.
C. Only parts of the message need to be kept confidential.
D. High performance and security are top concerns.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are the prerequisites for creating a Web service from an EJB using SOAP/HTTP transport in
Rational Application Developer V7.0?
A. Create an EAR project Create an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB project Deploy the enterprise bean Create an EJB router project
B. Create an EAR project Create an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB project
C. Create an EJB project Create or import an enterprise bean into the EJB projectDeploy the enterprise
beanCreate a Web project
D. Create an EAR projectCreate an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB projectCreate an EJB router projectDeploy the router project
Answer: B

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NO.10 In WebSphere Application Server V6.1, 'trust method' is part of which collection?
A. Required Integrity
B. Required Confidentiality
C. Required security token
D. Caller
E. Add time stamp
Answer: D

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NO.11 The following WSDL snippet represents which message transmission style?<wsdl:portType .... >
<wsdl:operation name="someOperation"> <wsdl:output name="oname" message="somename"/>
<wsdl:input name="iname" message="anothername"/> </wsdl:operation> </wsdl:portType .... >
A. One-way
B. Request-response
C. Solicit-response
D. Notification
Answer: C

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NO.12 For the following SOAP fault, which is a mandatory field that contains a human-readable description
of the fault occurred?<SOAP-ENV:Fault xmlns=""> <faultcode> value1 </faultcode> <faultstring> value2
</faultstring><faultactor> value3 </faultactor><detail> <e:faultNod xmlns:e="http://faultNod"><e:message>
value4 </e:message><e:errorcode> value5 </errorcode>
</e:faultNod> </detail> </SOAP-ENV:Fault>
A. value1
B. value2
C. value3
D. value4
E. value5
Answer: B

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NO.13 In addition to usernametoken and digestvalue, which other predefined keywords are supported by
WebSphere Application Server for encryption?
A. bodycontent
B. body
C. timestamp
D. passwordtoken
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is out of scope for the JSR 921 specification?
A. SOAP 1.1 and SOAP with Attachments (SwA)
B. WSDL 1.1
C. UDDI 1.0
D. Basic reliable message semantics
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which describes a Java return type for a Java method?
A. <wsdl:message>
B. <wsdl:part>
C. <wsdl:output>
D. <wsdl:fault>
Answer: C

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NO.16 In a top-down creation of a Web service, what does the WSDL portType map to?
A. A Java method invocation
B. A Stateless session EJB
C. A JAX-RPC mapping
D. A Service Endpoint Interface (SEI)
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which is NOT a prerequisite for a service implementation defined in a Session EJB Web service?
A. The Session EJB must have a default public constructor.
B. The remote interface of the Session EJB must implement the endpoint interface.
C. The Session EJB must have a default EJB create method.
D. The Session EJB must have one or more remote methods.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the output of the Bean2WebService tool?
A. A Service Endpoint Interface (SEI) file
B. An EAR file
C. A WSDL file
D. web.xml and webservices.xml files
Answer: B

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NO.19 Several methods have been proposed for supporting binary data in Web services. Which method is
effectively obsolete at this point?
A. Base 64 Encoding
B. SOAP with Attachments (SwA)
C. WS-Attachments with Direct Internet Message Encapsulation (DIME)
D. Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which three are WS-Security wizards in Rational Application Developer V7.0?
A. Add XML Encryption
B. Add XML Signature
C. Add WS Federation
D. Add WS Secure Conversation
E. Add WS Security Policy
F. Add Stand Alone Security Token
G. Add SAML Support
Answer: ABF

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Exam Code: 000-017

Exam Name: IBM (Foundations of Tivoli process automation engine V7.1)

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NO.1 When defining Security Groups which parameters can be specified?
A. Users, Sites, Applications and Storerooms
B. Storerooms, Group, Person and Applications
C. Users, Security, Data Restrictions and Access Rights
D. Permissions, Applications, Locations and Departments
Answer: A

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NO.2 A pharmaceutical company has made a tremendous number of configurations in their development
environment in order to meet their business requirements and the government regulations. The company
is ready to move 25% of these configurations into the test environment.
How should this be accomplished?
A.Export the XML and then import it again as appropriate into the test environment.
B.All of the configurations must be brought over. It is impossible to define only 25% of the configurations.
C.A package of the appropriate configurations should be defined and created. It should be distributed and
then deployed into the test environment.
D.Create a package of the appropriate configurations. Then use the Integration Framework to export
those configurations. Finally, use the Integration Framework to import the configurations into the Test
environment again.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When the agent saves the service request ticket, the system launches into a Service Request
Workflow process and evaluates the data on the record. If the agent has not entered asset, location, or
configuration item data, the system displays a dialog box with the following options:
Close ticket - informational call
Close ticket - unauthorized caller
Close ticket - misdirected call
Take no action
If an asset, location, or configuration item is specified on the record, the system displays a dialog box with
the following options:
Take Ownership of ticket
Assign Ownership of ticket
Create Work Order
Take no action on this ticket
Which three Nodes are used in this part of the workflow process? (Choose three.)
A.Wait
B.Input
C.Task
D.Condition
E.Interaction
F.Manual Input
Answer: DEF

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NO.4 Which type of domain has an internal value?
A.Table
B.Numeric
C.Synonym
D.Crossover
Answer: C

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NO.5 A business requires the blocking of status changes when a work order record is in workflow, unlocking
at a certain point to perform a status change to APPR, and then relocking when the status change occurs.
Leveraging the workflow tool, what are the necessary data elements and steps to meet this requirement?
A.On the workflow connector line where the status block is to begin use the NOSTATUS action. To unlock
the status change block, prior to the next status change, on a connector line use the OKSTATUS action.
B.In the Actions application, for the work order object, create the following Change Status type actions:
OKSTATUS, WOAPPR, NOSTATUS. On the workflow connector line where the status block is to begin
use the NOSTATUS action. To unlock the status change block, prior to the next status change, on a
connector line use the OKSTATUS and WOAPPR actions.
C.In the Actions application, create an Action Group for the work order object with the following members
in the following order: OKSTATUS, Work Order Approval action, NOSTATUS. On the workflow connector
line where the status block is to begin use a NOSTATUS action. To unlock the status change block, prior
to the next status change, on a connector line use the Action Group.
D.In the Actions application, for the work order object, create the following Change Status type actions:
OKSTATUS, WOAPPR, NOSTATUS. Create an Action Group for the work order object with the following
members in the following order: OKSTATUS, WOAPPR, NOSTATUS. On the workflow connector line
where the status block is to begin use a NOSTATUS action. To unlock the status change block, prior to the
next status change, on a connector line use the Action Group.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which type of domain cannot have a Lookup created for it?
A.Table
B.Numeric
C.Synonym
D.Numeric Range
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which property must be specified in maximo.properties?
A.mxe.db.user
B.mxe.rmi.port
C.mxe.http.port
D.mxe.UserLicenseKey
Answer: A

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NO.8 The property mxe.rmi.port can be found in maximo.properties and by the System Properties
application.
If mxe.rmi.port is set to 0 in the properties file, and is set to 1090 from the System Properties application,
which statement is true about this property?
A.This property value cannot be set to 0 in the properties file. Therefore, the value must be 1090.
B.The Tivoli process automation engine terminates with an error on startup because the two settings are
not consistent.
C.The value in the Tivoli process automation engine properties overrides the value found in the properties
file. So the property value would be 1090.
D.The value in the properties file overrides the value found when viewing Tivoli process automation
engine properties, so the property value would be 0.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A client has a workflow requirement on new asset records. Part of this requirement is that the
Contracts representatives from the Lease and Warranty groups review and validate contracts the asset
may or may not be under. The asset record cannot move to the next part of the workflow process until all
assignments are completed.
Which data elements and actions can be used to configure this part of the workflow process?
A.Use an Interaction node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate
that the Perform Acceptance Action is for when all assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive
connection line coming from this Task node to indicate an action that Leasing and Warranty Contracts
have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative connection line coming
from this Task node to indicate an action that Leasing and Warranty Contracts have been reviewed and
this asset is not under a contract.
B.Use a Task node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate that the
Perform Acceptance Action is for when all assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive connection
line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that indicates that Leasing and Warranty
Contracts have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative connection line
coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that Leasing and Warranty Contracts have been
reviewed and this asset is not under a contract.
C.Use an Interaction node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate
that the Perform Acceptance Action is for when any assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive
connection line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that indicates that Leasing and
Warranty Contracts have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative
connection line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that Leasing and Warranty Contracts
have been reviewed and this asset is not under a contract.
D.Use a Task node and assign to the Leasing and Warranty roles. Configure the task to indicate that the
Perform Acceptance Action is for when any assignments are accepted. Configure the Positive connection
line coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that indicates that Leasing and Warranty
Contracts have been reviewed and this asset is under a contract. Configure the Negative connection line
coming from this Task node to indicate an instruction that Leasing and Warranty Contracts have been
reviewed and this asset is not under a contract.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which three workflow application actions (APPACTION) can only be used in conjunction with an
Escalation and the WFASSIGNMENT object? (Choose three.)
A.WFAUTO
B.WFCOND
C.WFREJECT
D.WFINITIATE
E.WFACCEPT
F.WFESCALATE
Answer: CEF

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NO.11 Which two data elements are required to configure a Conditional user interface Control? (Choose two.)
A.Domain
B.Person Group
C.Object Structure
D.Signature Option
E.Conditional Expression
Answer: DE

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NO.12 When creating a new escalation, what is the most likely reason that the conditional SQL Expression
Builder does not list attributes to use?
A.An object has not been linked in the Applies To field.
B.The escalation has not been linked to an existing attribute.
C.The Create Condition Entry Disabled check box is selected.
D.The escalation has not been linked to an existing application.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which configuration option should be set when creating an escalation?
A.any related notifications to the escalation
B.the severity of the event that will be created
C.pager numbers in a comma-separated list in the escalation
D.the Peregrine or Remedy queue in which the escalation is placed
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement is true about the Conditional Expression Manager?
A.It creates and stores libraries of SQL statements.
B.It dynamically assigns a user to a Security Group based on a condition.
C.It controls workflow paths automatically when certain users are involved.
D.It creates conditions for group membership to automatically associate users into groups.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which function is performed when enabling Application Server security during the installation?
A.configuring Database Server to use Application Server security
B.configuring the Tivoli process automation engine application so that it handles authorizations to use the
application
C.modifying the J2EE application so that authentication will be handled by an external source such as
IBM Tivoli Directory Server or Microsoft Active Directory
D.modifying the Tivoli process automation engine application so that authentication is handled through
the application rather than an external source such as IBM Tivoli Directory Server or Microsoft Active
Directory
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which two types of condition can be created using the Conditional Expression Manager? (Choose
two.)
A.class
B.unique
C.universal
D.expression
E.conditional
Answer: AD

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NO.17 A customer wants to ensure that any data sent to the Tivoli process automation engine's Integration
Framework for retrieval of financial data into the Tivoli process automation engine can survive restarts
and failures.
Which statement is true?
A.A JMS messaging engine must be configured with a persistent data store.
B.The customer must have the persist data option set for the Integration Framework adapter.
C.It can be configured by setting a property inside the Tivoli process automation engine after installation.
D.The messages are stored local to the adapter and will survive failures without any additional
configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which factor would normally be considered when developing a primary location hierarchy?
A.the financial relationship between locations
B.the functional relationship between locations
C.the geophysical relationship between locations
D.the organizational relationship between locations
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which method is used to validate the escalation being created?
A.Choose the Select action for Validate.
B.There is no validation of the escalation.
C.Save the escalation. Validation is automatic.
D.Click the Action button, which resembles a green check mark.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What does the Schedule field refer to when creating an escalation?
A.the schedule by which the escalation will poll for conditions
B.the scheduled working hours of the escalation response team
C.the scheduled days of the week for which the escalation path is valid
D.a scheduled timer that is set when the condition checked by the escalation change, after which the
escalation fires
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-671

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Systems Networking Sales V1)

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NO.1 Capacity Manager ServeRaid Manager and cluster Systems Management are
comprehensive tools provided by which IBM Director feature?
A. Update Connector
B. Resource Monitoring
C. Electronic Service Agent
D. Director Extensions
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two of the following IBM xSeries servers listed below are equipped with an
intel Pentium 4 processor?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 335
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Ten members of the Research staff in a small company have individual dial-up
connections to the Internet. This is costing the company a lot of money. Which
server type would provide the BEST solution to reduce the cost of internet access,
and at the same time allow the company to better manage their wide area
connections?
A. A centralized file server with a single, high-speed internet connection, managed by a
member of the IT team who downloads the pages required by the Research Department.
B. A company-wide proxy server with a single high-speed internetconnection, providing
internet access to all staff in the Research Department.
C. A database server, using an off-line dial-up connection, which caches and sorts the
pages required by the Research Department
D. An HTTP server which downloads and mirrors the previous day page requests from
the Research Department
Answer: B

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NO.4 An ISP requires an ultra-dense 2-way high performance rack server to provide as
much capacity as possible in a crowded data center. The budget is tight so total cost
of ownership is a consideration. The customer needs a solution that is easy to install
and configure, and which makes adding or replacing servers simple. Which one of
the following IBM xSeries servers would best meet these requirements?
A. xSeries 305
B. xSeries 335
C. xSeries 345
D. xSeries 360
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is a RAID controller device that contains Fiber Channel
Interfaces to connect the host systems and disk drive enclosures?
A. EXP300
B. SAN FC Switch
C. FAST Storage Server
D. RXE-100 Remote Expansion Enclosure
Answer: C

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NO.6 When comparing the high availability features of the xSeries 235 and xSeries 255
servers, which feature is a standard feature of the x235 ONLY?
A. Chipkill memory
B. Active PCI-X support
C. Hot swap hard disk drives
D. Integrated RAID-1 support
E. Integrated systems management processor
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which IBM xSeries server is an affordable entry-level uniprocessor server with
rack-mount support provided by an optional rack conversion ket?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 335
D. xSeries 345
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following system management functions is supported only by the
Remote Supervisor Adapter
A. e-mail alerts
B. Generate SNMP traps
C. IBM Director via LAN
D. Automatic shutdown/restart
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two 2 of the following IBM xSeries servers include a standard ISMP, and can
upgrade system management capabilities by installing a Remote Supervisor
Adapter?
A. xSeries 225
B. xSeries 235
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 345
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Web-based management, DNS/DHCP support and e-mail alerts are functions of the
IBM__________
A. Remote Supervisor adapter
B. Netfinity Advanced System Management PCI adapter
C. xSeries 225 interated System Management function
D. xSeries 345 integrated System Management processor.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the maximum number of ASMPs and ASM asapters that can be configured
into one ASM Interconnect Network?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: A

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NO.12 What LAN hardware device is used to connect two network or systems?. This device
is protocol-independent but hardware-specific.
A. Bridge
B. Ateway
C. Repeater
D. Router
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two of the following allow RAID-5E to provide better protection than the
standard RAID-5?
A. Hot-space defined as part of the array
B. More than one logical drive in the array
C. Stripes data and parity across all of the drives in the array
D. Two drives in the array could fail, but not at the same time.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 The technology built into most IBM xSeries servers that can drastically reduce
service time by visually guiding the technician to a faulty component is called
A. IBM Director
B. Serverguide
C. Light-path diagnostics.
D. Predictive failure analysis.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which items from the following list are X-architecture Guiding Principles?
1- To drive and enhance industry standards
2- To make servers easier to service
3- To make servers easier to deploy and use
4- To make IBM servers easier to sell
5- To strive toward uninterrupted computing for intel processor-based servers
6- To lead the industry in driving down the cost of enterprise computing
A. 2,3,4,only
B. 1,3,5,6 only
C. 1,2,4,5, only
D. 2,5,6, only
Answer: B

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NO.16 How many of the IBM xSeries 345 server PCI expansion slots are Active PCI slots?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.17 A Proxy server is an example of what server type?
A. Centralized
B. Client/server
C. Device sharing
D. Web
Answer: D

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NO.18 The IBM Director function that allows administrators to use a command line
session to execute commands on the managed system is __________
A. File transfer
B. Process management
C. Remote session
D. Remote control
Answer: C

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NO.19 When comparing the IBM ServeRAID-4Mx and ServRAID-4Lx adapters, which
feature is available on the ServeRAID-4Mx ONLY?
A. Ultra 160 SCSI
B. Dual Address Cycle (DAC)
C. 64-bit PCI 2.2 at 66/33 MHz interface
D. 64 MB battery-backed ECC data cache memory
Answer: D

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NO.20 A company wants to track applications installed on their network systems using a
dictionary file with many predefined software product files. They also want to
collect hardware and software data when a managed system is first discovered and
at reular intervals after that. Which of the following IBM Director features would
be used to perform this function?
A. Resource Monitoring
B. Inventory Management
C. Software DISTRIBUTION
D. DMI Browser
Answer: B

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Exam Code: COG-480

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 Planning Professional)

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NO.1 When developing an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution, when is prototyping most useful?
A. When the user requirements are unclear.
B. When the development team is very large.
C. When the client can afford the extra time and cost required.
D. When the solution is being implemented for a department other than Finance.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the purpose of providing an initial delivery to end-users which addresses only 80 to 90% of their
needs?
A. The users will be content with a solution that addresses most of their requirements.
B. The requirements can be completely changed and still finished in time.
C. The solution can more easily be fine-tuned through iterative development.
D. The solution can be completed through sequential steps and in time.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are designing a production planning solution with IBM Cognos 8 Planning. Units will be input by the
regional production managers. Production rates for each factory are set centrally and do not change.
What is the primary consideration for the designer?
A. How easy will it be to update production rates.
B. How easy will it be to input units.
C. How quickly can assumption data be input.
D. How quickly can the list of factories be updated.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You identify that last year's actuals will be used as a basis for this year's plan. This data resides in a
database and will be loaded into Contributor. The data is very sensitive and security is important to the
customer. What are two solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Load from a Cognos package using the database as a source.
B. Use an ETL tool to load directly from the database avoiding the Copy and Load process.
C. Use the standard Copy, Load, and Prepare process in the Contributor administration console.
D. Load into Analyst and then export to a flat file and Copy, Load, and Prepare into Contributor.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which statement describes how Proven Practices are created?
A. Proven Practice is driven by product management to provide strict guidelines for modelers.
B. Proven Practice is developed by a specialist team who understand how the products work.
C. A variety of teams input ideas based on how customers are effectively using the products.
D. Support personnel provide tips and techniques to customers to help them create effective models.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You implement an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution which fulfills the users' needs. Two years later the
performance of the Go To Production and Reconciliation processes take an unacceptable time to run.
What may have been overlooked in the original design phase?
A. the frequency that the planning process is run
B. the number of BI reports based on planning data
C. the increase in the number of e.List items with time
D. the volume of assumption data in the Analyst model
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the benefit of using a methodology when developing an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution?
A. Allows accurate and complete development.
B. Allows development to be started before users are consulted.
C. Development can be done by less qualified consultants.
D. An iterative methodology can be used instead of waterfall.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which aspect of the Waterfall approach makes it less appropriate to use for developing planning
applications?
A. There is no Analyze phase; the steps go from Plan directly to Design.
B. Steps are followed sequentially without returning to previous steps.
C. Technical constraints tend to overrule user requirements.
D. This approach can only be implemented using large teams.
Answer: B

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NO.9 During the design phase of an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution, the Planning and BI teams meet to
discuss the reporting requirements. Which proposed change must be discussed by the whole
implementation team?
A. The number of users who will consume reports based on Planning information.
B. The D-Lists that will be used to represent the measures in reports.
C. The D-Lists that will represent time in the planning application.
D. The number of users who will perform data entry into the planning application.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Why does using a methodology increase the chances of a project being successful?
A. Requirements do not have to be documented before a project is started.
B. Requirements can be changed throughout the project lifespan.
C. Development follows predetermined phases based on proven practice.
D. Development must be completed within predetermined timescales.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: LOT-801

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Application Development Update)

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NO.1 Bonnie has a Customer view in her application that has the following columns (in order): Customer
Name, Customer Address, Customer Phone, Customer Comments, Last Contacted. She would like to
maximize the amount of column space for the Customer Comments field. How would Bonnie accomplish
this in Designer?
A. Select the "Maximum Width" property for the Customer Comment column.
B. Set the Height indicator to 9 lines for the Customer Comments column.
C. Select the extend to use available window width property for the Customer Comment column
D. Add the column name to the xtend to use available window width property in the Customer view.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The new "Composite Settings" option in a View column Properties box allows you to specify what?
A. An Action to perform when a row in the view is selected
B. A Property to publish when a row in the view is selected
C. Whether or not to display the column when the view is used in a Composite Application
D. An alternate font type, size, and color to use for that column when the view is used in a Composite
Application
Answer: B

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NO.3 Timmy is designing a View and he wants to use the new "Split Action Button" option for one of his
Actions. He creates an Action with sub-actions and checks the "Display as split button" box, but the Action
doesn't work as a Split button when he looks at the view in his Notes client. Why is this?
A. Split Action buttons work only for Shared Actions.
B. Split Action buttons work only for Forms.
C. Split Action buttons work only for Composite Applications.
D. The "Enable Advanced Action Bar" setting in the View properties has not been checked.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Thomas has utilized the right-click menu option feature in his application to show his custom actions.
He would like to present users with just the custom actions when they right-click with their mouse. How
can he accomplish this?
A. Remove the default menu items from the Action Bar of the view.
B. Deselect include action in Action Bar in the Action button properties of the view.
C. Deselect show default items in right-mouse menu in the Action Bar properties of the view.
D. Select emove default items in right-mouse menu?in the Action button properties of the view.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Scott has just created a new NSF-based Composite Application. He has added two components to his
application and is about to close the Composite Application Editor (CAE). What does he need to do if he
now wants to see how his Composite Application appears in the user interface?
A. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. The database
launch properties must first be set to "Launch as Composite Application".
B. Nothing. The CAE is opened from within the Composite Application. When Scott exits the CAE, he is
automatically presented again with the Composite Application, open in the user interface.
C. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. He will first need
to open the Composite Application using Domino Designer and set the Wiring Properties.
D. When Scott exits the CAE, he is back at the Notes Workspace, just as when exiting other NSF-based
applications. Double-click on the Composite Application's icon on the Workspace to open it in the user
interface.
Answer: B

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NO.6 When Bert is designing his Composite Application, he wants to have a Notes view that publishes a
UserName property to another view and also to a Notes form that is open in edit mode. How does he do
this?
A. He simply uses the Composite Application Editor to wire all three components together.
B. He creates one Composite Application that wires the two views together, and then a second
Composite Application that incorporates the first one, with the first view wired to the form.
C. Because each component can only publish a single property, he has to wire the first view publish the
user name to the second view, and then wire the second view to publish the user name to the form.
D. Because he can publish a property only to a single component, he has to make his first view publish
two properties (e.g. UserName1 and UserName2) that both have the same data, so that one of the
properties is wired to the second view and the other is wired to the form.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Beatrice created a new Composite Application database in the Notes 8 client, but when she opens it up
she sees a grey page that says "This Application page does not contain any content." What does she
have to do next?
A. Click the menu option "View - Design" to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite
Application definition.
B. Click the menu option "Actions - Edit Application" to open the database in the Composite Application
Editor to edit the Composite Application definition.
C. Double-click the grey page to open the database in the Composite Application Editor to edit the
Composite Application definition.
D. Right-click the grey page to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite Application
definition.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Kyle is designing a Composite Application that can send a user name from a form to a view, by clicking
a button on the form. He knows he wants to define a Wiring property called ReceiveUserName that will be
used when the view is receiving a user name string that is published by the form. When he opens the
Property Broker Editor to define "ReceiveUserName", what does he define it as?
A. Type
B. Action
C. Event
D. Property
Answer: B

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NO.9 Barry has just closed the Property Broker Editor after specifying input and output Action parameters for
his Composite Application Editor (CAE). He notices a curved arrow icon in Domino Designer next to the
name of the Wiring Property. What should Barry do to ensure that his changes are saved within his
Domino application?
A. Click the "Refresh" button, and then click the "Open" button in the window that displays.
B. Nothing. The Property Broker automatically saves changes inside the Domino application.
C. Click the "Merge WSDLs" button and click "OK" in the confirmation prompt that then displays.
D. Open the Wiring Property properties and ensure that the "Store in NSF" option is selected. The
changes will be saved within the Domino application when Domino Designer is closed.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Samir wants to design and deploy a Composite Application that consists of components from two Lotus
Notes databases that both reside on the same Domino Server. He would like to include the Composite
Application definition inside one of the Lotus Notes databases, to make it easier to deploy and replicate.
Can he do this?
A. No, a Composite Application definition must be hosted on a WebSphere Portal server.
B. No, a Composite Application definition must reside in a Lotus Notes database that is based on the
"Blank Composite Application" template.
C. Yes, he simply needs to click the "New Composite Application" button in the Composite Applications -
Application section of the Database design and begin writing the definition.
D. Yes, but first he needs to define the Composite Application in the Composite Application Editor and
save the resulting XML file. Then he can create a new definition in the Composite Applications -
Application section of the Database design and import the XML.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Myrtle is modifying the design of a View in a Notes database, so it can update a published Property that
the other components in a Composite Application can respond to. Where does she write code that
updates a Property?
A. In a view action
B. In the OnSelect event of the view
C. In the QueryModeChange event of the view
D. In the Initialize subroutine of the Global section of the view
Answer: B

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NO.12 Victor has a Movie Rental Notes application with a Movie Inventory view. The database is not full-text
indexed, and users are complaining about the long search times when they attempt to search the
database. How can Victor prevent searching in this database if no full-text index has been created?
A. Select the don't allow simple search option in the Database properties.
B. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory view properties.
C. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory document properties.
D. Select the ponfirm full text index before search option in the Database properties.
Answer: A

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NO.13 The new Rich Text Lite "Thumbnail" input type allows you to specify the height and width of the
thumbnail image, along with what other attribute?
A. File type
B. Color depth
C. Image resolution
D. Attachment name
Answer: D

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NO.14 Linda has selected the database property Support Response Thread History for her Call Log
application. When she looks at the document fields in the Document Properties dialog box, she notices a
new field has been added to each new document. What field does Linda see?
A. $TUA
B. $REF
C. $SRTH
D. $REF2
Answer: A

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NO.15 Luigi has created a view for his mail file that shows the size of the document. In that column, he would
like to display the size as either kilobytes or megabytes. How can Luigi accomplish this?
A. Set the number format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
B. Set the number format for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
C. Set the Preferences For Display format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
D. Set the Additional Display Formatting for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
Answer: B

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NO.16 Clarisa's agent needs to run every time the APP012 server is rebooted. There is no harm to data if the
agent runs repeatedly, but Clarisa would like to minimize the impact to server performance. How should
Clarisa trigger the agent to run?
A. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "When server starts".
B. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "On agent manager start".
C. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "Run once", and select the schedule option
"On server boot".
D. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "More than once a day". Clarisa should
determine how soon after a server boot the agent must be run. The schedule frequency should be set to
that amount of time.
Answer: A

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NO.17 The default view in the Notes 8 Contacts database allows you to display the information in the view
either on a single line (as with a traditional Notes view) or in a "business card" style format with each entry
displayed in an individual box and the boxes arranged in columns, scrolling vertically. To create a view
that allows this sort of "business card" format, what type of Layout Viewer do you need to specify in the
View Properties?
A. Tiled
B. Boxed
C. Vertical
D. Composite
Answer: A

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NO.18 Nina has been asked to add several views to the Sales.nsf database, many of which are to include
multiple sorted columns and multiple user-sortable columns. How can she help minimize the impact to the
server from these new views?
A. Select the "Defer index creation until first use" Advanced Option from the Advanced tab of the
database properties.
B. Open each view that includes sorted or user-sortable columns. Select the "Defer index creation until
first use" Index option from the Advanced tab of the view properties.
C. Open each view that includes sorted columns. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of each
sorted column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
D. Open each view that includes a user-sortable column. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of
each user-sortable column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Maxie is using the new "Defer index creation until first use" option in her views that have sortable
columns, in order to delay creation of these extra indices until they are needed. She notices that the extra
column indices are still being built immediately instead of being deferred. Why is this?
A. This option works only for categorized columns.
B. This option is related to the database's full-text index, not the view index.
C. This option is valid only when the view is used in a composite application.
D. The server administrator needs to set the ENABLE_ON_DEMAND_COLLATIONS=1 setting in the
server's Notes.ini file.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Kristen has been asked to develop a Composite Application to "wire" the Customer, Orders, and
Inventory applications together. She understands that this will result in communication among the
different pieces of the new application. How does this communication work?
A. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite
Application Editor is used to define Actions
and their parameters, and to configure Property Broker options.
B. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite
Application Editor is launched from Domino
Designer to define Broker Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
C. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. The Property Broker Editor is
launched directly from Domino Designer (or
can be launched via the CAE) to define Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
D. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. Domino Designer must first be
used to define the Wiring Properties.
Composite Application Broker options can then be configured using the Composite Application Editor or
from within Domino Designer.
Answer: C

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