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Exam Code: 3X0-103
Exam Name: SAIR (Linux Networking (Level 1) )

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NO.1 Which of the following host IP addresses are on networks normally reserved for intranets? (Choose
three.)
A. 10.1.220.1
B. 12.1.2.4
C. 172.16.0.30
D. 192.168.0.18
E. 187.10.30.200
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 If a machine has an IP address of 192.168.1.61 and the netmask is 255.255.255.0, what is its subnet
address?
A. 192.0.0.0
B. 192.168.0.0
C. 192.168.1.0
D. 0.0.0.61
Answer: C

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NO.3 Assume that a software company has a subnet address 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0. How many
possible hosts can this subnet support, and what is the network address for the subnet?
A. 64; 192.168.1.255
B. 254; 192.168.1.0
C. 255; 192.168.1.0
D. 256; 192.168.1.255
E. 128; 192.168.1.1
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Resource Record allows the redirecting of mail to another host, assuming the correct
accounts exist?
A. TXT
B. PTR
C. SOA
D. MAIL
E. MX
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following can tunneling be used for?
A. It can connect two IPX networks separated by some different network.
B. It can connect two IPv4 networks separated by some different network.
C. It can provide mobile IP support and amateur radio support.
D. It can connect two IPv6 networks separated by some different network.
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following is FALSE concerning TCP, IP, and UDP? (Select the best answer.)
A. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) supports unicast addressing.
B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) supports unicast addressing.
C. TCP supports multicasting.
D. UDP supports multicasting.
E. Internet Protocol (IP) supports multicasting.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is TRUE about the subnet mask?
A. Another name for the subnet mask is the subnet address.
B. In the subnet mask, zeros represent the host ID and ones represent the network ID.
C. In the subnet mask, ones represent the host ID and zeros represent the network ID.
D. The subnet mask is used to aid in name resolution for root name servers.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which path accurately depicts a three-way handshake between Network X and Network Y for
establishing a TCP connection? (Select the best answer.)
A. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends SYN to X; X sends ACK to Y
B. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends two SYNs to X; X sends ACK to Y
C. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN to X ; X sends ACK to Y
D. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends ACK to X ; X sends ACK to Y
E. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN and ACK to X; X sends ACK to Y
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following are TRUE about buffer size? (Choose two.)
A. A large buffer can lead to wasted system memory.
B. A small buffer can lead to slower data transfer lines.
C. Having a small buffer will free system memory, allocating fewer registers.
D. The larger the buffer, the faster the transfer rate, reducing time arrival jitter.
Answer: AB

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NO.10 Which of the following is TRUE concerning the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
A. It binds a physical address to a broadcast address.
B. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a logical address.
C. It binds a logical address to an IP address.
D. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a physical address.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Because of flow control, UDP will generally lead to network congestion, while TCP helps prevent
congestion.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following can you do with the "ping" command? (Choose two.)
A. Determine if a remote host can be contacted.
B. Create and modify (n)x-u NIS network maps.
C. View the MAC address of a given host.
D. Display the route along which an IP packet travels.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 Which of the following commands will allow you to view the ARP table when the configured name
server is not functioning? (Choose the best answer.)
A. arp -v
B. arp -a
C. arp -n
D. arp -s
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following subnet masks is usually associated with a Class A IP address?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C

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NO.15 inetd is responsible for waiting for new network requests and authenticating users based on the
contents of the "inetd.conf" file.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.16 A default policy of DENY and ACCEPT may be implemented for a system's ipchains. Which of the
following options will change the default input policy to DENY?
A. ipchains -a input DENY
B. ipchains -a output DENY
C. ipchains -P input DENY
D. ipchains -all input DENY
E. ipchains -input DENY
Answer: C

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NO.17 For a Class C network, which of the following denotes a valid host address on the 192.168.3.0
network?
A. 192.168.3.255
B. 192.168.3.1
C. 192.168.3.0
D. 192.168.3.256
Answer: B

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NO.18 You wish to communicate with hosts on your wide-area network. Which of the following is the exact
sequence of commands used to manually configure an Ethernet interface, assuming driver modules
are not loaded?
A. lsmod, insmod, ifconfig
B. insmod, ifconfig, route
C. lsmod, rmmod, insmod, ifconfig
D. ifconfig, route
Answer: B

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NO.19 Telnet was developed as a continuation of what other communications program developed for
ARPANET? (Select the best answer.)
A. rpc
B. tele
C. login
D. ftp
E. mutt
F. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.20 Typical implementations of ping use the _____ to send echo requests to other hosts.
A. Internet Protocol (IP)
B. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
D. Transport Control Protocol (TCP)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ES0-006
Exam Name: RES Software (RES Automation Manager 2011 Service Orchestration Exam)

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NO.1 The operation lifecycle of a service consists of three phases. Which phases are these?
A. Context, Content, Security
B. Qualification, Delivery, Return
C. Automation, Provisioning, Orchestration
D. Composition, Administration, Security
Answer: B

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NO.2 An XP machine with the German version of Windows XP is connecting to the Orchestration Service. In
which language will the client start up?
A. German
B. English
C. French
D. Dutch
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator has configured several modules and run books in Automation Manager to install
applications unattended. The administrator wants that users can request these applications themselves
via Service Orchestration The administrator has already installed the Console. Datastore and Web Client
How can the administrator link the Orchestration Service to Automation Manager.?
A. In Automation Manager, go to the Interaction tab and configure the Orchestration Service pluguin
B. In the Orchestration Console, go to Setup > Datastore and select an Automation Manager environment
C. In the Transaction Engine, select an Automation Manager dispatcher.
D. In the Catalog Service, select the Automation Manager Integration tab and select "enable "
Answer: B

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Exam Code: RH033
Exam Name: RedHat (Red Hat Linux Essentials)

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NO.1 Which of the following options is used with aspell to specify the location of the main word list?
A. d,--master=string
B. -p,--personal=file
C. --jargon=string
D. --dict-dir=dir
Answer: D

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NO.2 You work as the Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.You
are working as a root user on Red Hat operating system. You are currently running a programnamed
My_program. You are getting some error messages while executing the program. Youwant to redirect
these error messages to a file named file2 rather than being displayed on the
screen.Which of the following tools should you use to accomplish the task?
A. My_program >> file2
B. My_program 2> file2
C. My_program 2>> file2
D. My_program > file2
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following commands copies files between hosts on a network and uses the same
authentication as ssh, and will ask for passwords or passphrases if they are needed for authentication?
A. scp
B. rcp
C. cp
D. mv
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following commands is used to access Windows resources from Linux workstation?
A. rsync
B. mutt
C. scp
D. smbclient
Answer: D

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NO.5 You work as the Network Administrator for Perfect solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
Network. You are working as a root user. You want to know what the day will be on 20 July 2010. Which of
the following commands should you use to accomplish this task?
A. cal
B. cal 20 July
C. cal 7 2010
D. date
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following commands will you run to do case-sensitive search for files named foobar.png?
A. locate -name foobar.png
B. find -iname foobar.png
C. grep-name foobar.png
D. find -name foobar.png
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which ftp client command allows you to upload multiple files simultaneously using the "*" wildcard?
A. mput
B. mget
C. put
D. get
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following commands is used to securely copy files from one host to another over the
network?
A. ls
B. cat
C. mutt
D. scp
Answer: D

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NO.9 Mark is a newly appointed Network Technician for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. He is working on the Red Hat operating system. He wants to sort a file named marketing.txt in
the reverse alphabetical order. Which of the following commands should Mark use to accomplish this
task?
A. sort -u marketing.txt
B. sort marketing.txt
C. sort -n marketing.txt
D. sort -r marketing.txt
Answer: D

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NO.10 You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. A printer
is configured on the network. You want to remove a file from a print queue. Which of the following
commands will you use to accomplish this?
A. LPR
B. LPQDEL
C. LPRM
D. LPQ
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are a newly appointed Red Hat Technician for company Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. You want to install a package named httpd on your Linux system. Before installing the package,
you want to get the list of those packages that httpd depends on. Which of the following commands will
you use to accomplish the task?
A. rpm deplist httpd
B. yum deplist httpd
C. yum list httpd
D. rpm -qR httpd
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following key-combinations is used to redo a change undone by a u command in vim?
A. Ctrl-w, Arrow
B. Ctrl-w, s
C. Ctrl-r
D. Ctrl-w, v
Answer: C

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. David, a
Sales Manager, wants to know the name of the shell that he is currently using. Which of the following
commands will he use to accomplish the task?
A. ECHO $shell
B. RM $shell
C. MV $shell
D. LS $shell
Answer: A

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NO.14 Fill in the blank with the required permission to complete the statement below. In order to make a script
executable in a Linux computer, you must assign the___________ permission to the script file.
A. execute
Answer: A

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NO.15 Fill in the blank with the appropriate tool. __________ is a public domain collection of tools to allow
Unix systems to manipulate MS-DOS files: read, write, and move around files on an MSDOS file system.
A. mtools
Answer: A

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NO.16 You work as the Network technician for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based Network. You are
working on the Red Hat operating system. You want to remove some write protected files and directories.
Which of the following commands should you use to accomplish this task?
A. rm -rf
B. rm -f
C. rmdir
D. rm
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following text editing tools can be used to edit text files without having to open them?
A. less
B. sed
C. vi
D. more
Answer: B

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NO.18 You want to temporarily change your primary group to another group of which you are a member. In this
process, a new shell will be created, and when you exit the shell, your previous group will be reinstated.
Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?
A. chmod
B. newgrp
C. chgrp
D. chown
Answer: B

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NO.19 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to break a dat a.txt file,
200MB in size, into two files in which the size of the first file named data.txt.aa should be150MB and that
of the second file named data.txt.ab should be 50MB. To accomplish his task and to further delete the
data.txt file, he enters the following command: split --verbose -b 150m data.txt data.txt. ; rm -vf data.txt
Which of the following commands can John use to join the splitted files into a new data.txt file?
A. vi data.txt.*
B. less data.txt.* > data.txt
C. cat data.txt.* > data.txt
D. vi data.txt.* > data.txt
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following commands will you use to list all local and remote printers attached to your
computer?
A. lpq
B. lpstat -d
C. lpstat -t
D. lpr
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1K0-002
Exam Name: Polycom (CVE-2)

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NO.1 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE Interfaces that provide which three signals?
A.Transmit Data
B.Receive Data
C.Request to Send
D.Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E.TX Clock and TX Data
F.TX Clock and RX Clock
Answer: BDF

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NO.2 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?
A.BRTZ-AMI
B.B7S
C.HDB3
D.B8ZS
E.Pulse Stuffing
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two other names for a Frame Relay Network?
A.RS-232
B.V.35
C.Broadband
D.Virtual Private Network
E.802.3 Medium Access Control Network
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?
A.G.711
B.G.722
C.G.729
D.G.728
E.G.722.1
Answer: C

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NO.5 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A.200
B.240
C.256
D.300
Answer: C

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NO.6 The term "Full Motion Video" typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A.Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B.Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C.Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D.Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following are Call Establishment packets? (Select three of the following options.)
A.Receiver Ready
B.Disconnect Request
C.Release Request
D.Setup
E.Connect Acknowledged
F.Receiver Not Ready
G.Alerting
H.Release Complete
Answer: DEG

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NO.8 A telephone call over the Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?
A.Narrow band audio
B.Center band audio
C.Wide band audio
D.CD quality audio
Answer: A

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NO.9 When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.
A.Audio signal levels
B.feedback frequency filtering
C.room acoustics
D.all of the above
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following describes the activity for which a RTCP is used?
A.Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP
B.Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol
C.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Videoconferencing Hardware
D.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Routers
E.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Gatekeepers
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following describes audio analog clipping?
A.A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain
applied.
B.An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain
applied.
C.Audio amplifiers with too high an impedance.
D.A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with excessive AC line voltage.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the H.323 Gatekeeper?
A.Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals
B.Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C.Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D.Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals
Answer: D

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NO.13 How is noise measured?
A.Volume
B.Distance
C.Amplitude
D.Impedance
Answer: AC

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NO.14 Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
Answer: DE

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NO.15 Pick the best match; Audio "Critical Distance" is a definition that relates to:
A.Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone
B.Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used
C.Distance between the video display monitor and camera
D.Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways
Answer: B

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NO.16 High Definition Video is best described as
A.Video Signal that consists of luminance scan interlaced lines.
B.Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels.
C.Video signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned.
D.Video Signal made up of 40X40 macroblocks pixels.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A.48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
B.12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
C.A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D.A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power
microphones
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?
A.G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
C.G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
D.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?
A.Channel 6
B.Channel 4
C.Channel 3
D.Channel 2
E.Channel 1
Answer: E

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NO.20 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A.connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
B.unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
C.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
D.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E.C and D
F.All of the above
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-042
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle database 10g:Administration I)

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NO.1 Which two operations require undo data? (Choose two.)
A. recovering from failed transactions
B. recording a transaction to redo log files
C. rolling back a transaction
D. committing a transaction
E. rolling forward during instance recovery
Answer: AC

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NO.2 View the Exhibit to see the source and target databases.
You have created a database link, devdb.us.oracle.com, between the databases PRODDB and DEVDB.
You want to import schema objects of the HR user using Oracle Data Pump from the
development database, DEVDB, to the production database, PRODDB. You execute the following
command on the target database server:
$impdp system/manager directory = DB_DATA
dumpfile = schemas.dat
schemas = hr
flashback_time = 2004-02-03 09:00
The command fails, displaying the following error:
ORA-39001: invalid argument value
ORA-39000: bad dump file specification
ORA-31640: unable to open dump file "/home/oracle/schema/schemas.dat" for read
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
What would you do to overcome the error?
A. remove the dumpfile option in the command
B. remove the flashback_time option in the command
C. remove the dumpfile option and add the network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com option in the command
D. add the user, SYSTEM, to the schemas option in the command
E. remove the schemas option and add the network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com option in the command
F. add network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com option in the command
Answer: C

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NO.3 The employee IDs of employees who have made sales in the company are transferred from the
EMPLOYEES table to the BONUS table with a default bonus value. Later, the human resources
department decides to give bonuses to employees as per the following conditions:
1. Employees with a salary of $8,000 or less should receive a bonus.
2. Employees who have not made sales get a bonus of 1% of their salary.
3. Employees who already made sales get an increase in their bonus equal to 1% of their salary.
What would you do to implement these changes in one step?
A. Use SQL*Loader utility.
B. Use the MERGE statement.
C. Use a multitable insert operation.
D. Use a correlated UPDATE statement.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You want to create a tablespace with the following specifications:
1. The tablespace extends automatically.
2. Used and free extents should be managed by bitmaps.
3. Default PCTUSED attribute is set to 60.
4. All the extents would be of size 1 MB.
Which three options would you choose to create the tablespace? (Choose three.)
A. tablespace with segment space management as automatic
B. tablespace with AUTOEXTEND enabled
C. tablespace with a uniform extent allocation of 1 MB
D. tablespace with dictionary-managed extents
E. tablespace with segment space management as manual
Answer: BCE

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the roles in the Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A. A role cannot be assigned external authentication.
B. Roles can be granted to other roles.
C. Roles are owned by the SYS user.
D. A role can be granted to itself.
E. A role can contain both system and object privileges.
Answer: BE

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NO.6 Which three statements are true regarding the fine-grained auditing (FGA)? (Choose three.)
A. FGA is possible on SELECT statements only.
B. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the AUD_LOG$ table.
C. FGA includes the SQL statement used by the user as part of the audit event entry.
D. FGA enables a SQL predicate to define when to audit an event.
E. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the FGA_LOG$ table.
F. FGA audits DELETE statements only when audit columns are specified.
Answer: CDE

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NO.7 You want to monitor and control the resource usage by sessions. You want to be warned automatically
when more than 100 sessions are opened with your database. What action would you take to achieve
this?
A. Set the warning threshold for the Current Logons Count metric.
B. Set the limits in the profiles used by users.
C. Use the Database Resource Manager.
D. Modify the SESSIONS initialization parameter.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your database instance is started using the server parameter file (SPFILE). Control files are
multiplexed and stored on different disks. Because of a disk failure, you lost one of these control files. You
replaced the damaged disk. What is the correct sequence of steps that you would follow to recover the
control file?
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2. Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3. Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4. Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5. Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.
6. Open the database.
A. 2,4,3,4,5
B. 5,2,3,4
C. 4,5,6,2,3
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Answer: D

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NO.9 In your database, the snapshot interval is set to 10 minutes for the Automatic Workload Repository
(AWR). The database instance is running for the past 30 days.
View the Exhibit to examine the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) task.
The ADDM task is performed every 10 minutes, except the last task. What could be the reason for this?
A. The snapshot retention period for the AWR was increased before the last task.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter was changed to BASIC and reset to TYPICAL before
the last task.
C. The optimizer statistics was collected manually by using the DBMS_STATS package before the last
task.
D. The optimizer statistics for few objects in the database were locked before the last task.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You specified extent management as local for a tablespace. How will it affect space management in the
tablespace?
A. The tablespace will be system managed and the users cannot specify the extent size.
B. Free extents will be managed by the data dictionary tables.
C. All the extents will be of the same size.
D. Bitmap will be used to record free and allocated extents.
Answer: D

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NO.11 You executed the STARTUP MOUNT command to start your database. For which database operation
do you need to start the database in the MOUNT state?
A. dropping a user in your database
B. dropping a tablespace in your database
C. enabling or disabling redo log archiving
D. renaming the control files
E. re-creating the control files, after you lost all the control files in your database
Answer: C

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NO.12 Redo log files are not multiplexed in your database. Redo log blocks are corrupted in group 2, and
archiving has stopped. All the redo logs are filled and database activity is halted. Database writer has
written everything to disk. Which command would you execute to proceed further?
A. ALTER DATABASE CLEAR UNARCHIVED LOGFILE GROUP 2;
B. RECOVER LOGFILE BLOCK GROUP 2;
C. ALTER DATABASE CLEAR LOGFILE GROUP 2;
D. ALTER DATABASE DROP LOGFILE GROUP 2;
E. ALTER DATABASE RECOVER LOGFILE GROUP 2;
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which step do you need to perform to enable a user with the SYSDBA privilege to log in as SYSDBA in
iSQL*Plus.?
A. The user must be granted the database administrator (DBA) privilege.
B. Set up a user in the Oracle Application Server Containers for J2EE (OC4J) user manager, and grant
the webDba role to the user.
C. The user must be listed in the password file for the authentication.
D. No special setup is needed for the user to connect as SYSDBA in iSQL*Plus.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You have a text file that maintains information on thousands of items. The end-user application requires
the transfer of that information into a table in the database. What would you use to achieve this task?
(Choose two.)
A. Data Pump
B. SQL*Loader
C. External table
D. Oracle Text
E. Oracle Import
Answer: BC

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NO.15 You plan to use static database registration for a new listener when you create it. What could be the
two reasons for this? (Choose two.)
A. The Oracle Enterprise Manager is to be used to monitor an Oracle9i database.
B. More than one database is to be registered with the listener.
C. The listener is not configured on the default port of 1521 and the instance is not configured to register
with a nondefault port.
D. The users will connect the database by using the host naming method.
E. The database that is to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server mode.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 User Scott has updated the salary of one of the employees in the EMPLOYEES table and has not
committed the transaction. What are the two types of locks that this scenario would lead to? (Choose
two.)
A. a shareable table lock for the table containing the row
B. null lock on the table containing the row
C. exclusive table-level lock for the table containing the row
D. null lock on the row being updated
E. ROW SHARE lock for the row being updated
F. shared row-exclusive lock for the row being updated
G. ROW EXCLUSIVE lock for the row being updated
Answer: AG

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NO.17 Which statement regarding the contents of the V$PARAMETER view is true?
A. displays only the list of default values
B. displays the current contents of the server parameter file
C. displays the currently in effect parameter values
D. displays the list of all the parameter files of a database
E. displays only the list of all advanced parameters
F. displays only the list of all basic parameters
Answer: C

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NO.18 Examine the following commands executed in your database:
SQL> ALTER SESSION RECYCLEBIN=ON;
Session altered
SQL> CREATE TABLE emp TABLESPACE tbsfd AS SELECT * FROM hr.employees; Table created.
Further, you executed the following command to drop the table:
SQL> DROP TABLE emp;
Table dropped.
What happens in this scenario?
A. The table is moved to the SYSTEM tablespace.
B. The table is renamed and remains in the TBSFD tablespace.
C. The table is moved to the SYSAUX tablespace.
D. The table is removed from the database permanently.
Answer: B

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NO.19 The ST_INFO master table has millions of rows that are updated very rarely. It has a STATE_CODE
column that contains the value for 25 states. The table is frequently queried on the STATE_CODE column.
Which type of index would you suggest to improve the query performance?
A. bitmap
B. B-tree
C. function based
D. reverse key
Answer: A

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NO.20 The user SCOTT executes the following command successfully to increase the salary values in one of
his sessions:
SQL> UPDATE emp SET sal=sal*1.15 WHERE deptno=20;
Before SCOTT ends the transaction, user HR who has the privileges on EMP table executes a query to
fetch the salary details but finds the old salary values instead of the increased values.
Why does HR still see the old data?
A. because of redo data from redo log file
B. because of data from a temporary tablespace
C. because of undo data from the undo tablespace
D. because of data from database buffer cache
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z1-202
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel 8 Consultant Exam)

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NO.1 Which represents a business entity and groups data from one or more tables?
A.Applet
B.Application
C.Business object
D.Business component
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are creating a new view in Siebel Tools. When you attempt to add applets, you do not see the
applet you want to add listed in the Available Applets list. Which two would cause this? (Choose two.)
A.You failed to assign a Project.
B.You picked the wrong Web Template.
C.You selected the wrong Business Object for the view.
D.The applet object definition has Inactive set to FALSE.
E.The Business Component that the applet is based on is not part of the Business Object the view is
based on.
Answer: CE

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NO.3 When should you use explicit primaries through Enterprise Integration Manager?
A.when there is only one child record in the dataset
B.any time you have more than one child record in the dataset
C.when the external system defines which child record should be the primary
D.when the external system does not define which child record should be the primary
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two clients obtain initialization settings from both the configuration file and Application Object
Manager component parameters? (Choose two.)
A.Web Client
B.Handheld Client
C.Mobile Web Client
D.Wireless Web Client
E.Dedicated Web Client
Answer: AD

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NO.5 You are considering using the ATTRIB_02 column on the S_SRV_REQ_X table and you want to
determine which, if any, business component field is already using this column. What would you do?
A.Use Search Repository, select Column as the Type and enter ATTRIB_02 as the value.
B.Use the Flat tab, select the Field type, and search the Column property for ATTRIB_02 and the Join
property for S_SRV_REQ_X
C. Use the Flat tab, select the Column type, and search the Name property for ATTRIB_02.
D. Use the Types tab, search for Service* business components, inspect each of their Single Value Fields.
E. Use the Types tab, select the Service Request business component, then Single Value Field, and
search the Column property for ATTRIB_02.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How can you verify the High Interactivity client environment after installation?
A.Run Health Check.
B.Run Environment Verification Test.
C.Examine the Siebel Web Client registry file.
D.Rerun the Installation Program and select Verify.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement about views and responsibilities is true?
A.Multiple responsibilities may share views.
B.Manager and User responsibilities will have completely different views.
C.Users have access to the views associated with only one responsibility at a time.
D.Each responsibility assigned to a user must have entirely separate views assigned.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does the Component Reconfiguration feature allow you to do?
A.Change component parameters without interrupting users.
B.Activate reconfigured components at the next server restart.
C.Move server components from one server to another without interrupting users.
D.Stop all current instances of a component and restart them with new parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are creating a new child business component to support displaying promotional items that have
been sent to Contacts. What type of table do you base the new business component on?
A.The base table of the parent business component.
B.Standard interface tables supplied by Siebel.
C.Standard 1:M extension tables supplied by Siebel.
D.New tables that you create with the Business Component wizard.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which Server Administration feature can be configured to notify the Administrator when a server
component reaches an undesired state?
A.Audit trail
B.System Alerts
C.Siebel State Model
D.Component Event Logging
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is true about directory server authentication?
A.It is the default authentication method for Siebel applications.
B.It typically uses a single reserved database login for all users.
C.User authentication is performed by a third-party service at the Web server level.
D.It does not require additional infrastructure components, such as security adapters.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which object definitions in the Business Layer do List columns and controls in the UI Layer reference?
A.Fields
B.Columns
C.Business objects
D.Business components
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have been asked to create a multi-value group for contacts phone numbers. What should your first
step in this configuration be?
A.Create a new business component to store these phone numbers.
B.Determine which column on the base table you can use to store these phone numbers.
C.Determine which column on the one-to-many extension table you can use to store these phone
numbers.
D.Run the MVG Wizard in Siebel Tools, specify the business component, and have it automatically select
the appropriate column.
E.Examine the existing application to determine whether there is already a multi-value group you could
leverage to store phone numbers.
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which Siebel business entity represents businesses external to your company that could be a current
or potential client, business partner, or competitor?
A.Contact
B.Account
C.Position
D.Opportunity
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which Siebel business entity represents people with whom you do business?
A.User
B.Contact
C.Position
D.Opportunity
Answer: B

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NO.16 You need to search Service Requests in your workflow. You add a Siebel Operation step.
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.You set the Operation property to Query.
B.You set the Operation property to Search.
C.You set the Operation Property to Update.
D.You set the Business Object property to Service Request.
E.You set the Business Component property to Service Request.
Answer: AE

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NO.17 Which describes database authentication?
A.It is the default authentication method for Siebel applications.
B.It typically uses a single reserved database login for all users.
C.It requires additional infrastructure components, such as security adapters.
D.User authentication is performed by a third-party service at the Web server level.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which three products do you have the option of installing with the Siebel Enterprise Server Installer?
(Choose three.)
A.Siebel Tools
B.Siebel Server
C.Siebel Web Client
D.Sample Database
E.Gateway Name Server
F.Siebel Web Server Extensions
G.Database Configuration Utilities
Answer: BEG

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NO.19 Which authentication method allows for self-registration by Web users?
A.Web Single Sign On
B.database authentication
C.Windows authentication
D.Directory Server authentication
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which Assignment Mode filters all qualified organizations and persons and then assigns only those that
have corresponding persons and organizations that meet the criteria?
A.Independent
B.Organization-oriented
C.Person-oriented
D.Org & person-oriented
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-031
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle9i database:fundamentals i)

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NO.1 In your database, you observe that a database user is executing a lot of CPU-intensive queries,
thereby causing the database performance to degrade. You want to restrict the resource utilization of that
user without affecting other database users. Which two options can you use? (Choose two.)
A. start the database in QUIESCED mode
B. use the Database Resource Manager to prioritize CPU usage
C. grant the RESTRICTED SESSION system privilege to the user
D. create a profile with resource restriction and assign it to the user
E. create a database trigger to monitor user queries and to terminate the user session if the CPU usage
exceeds a threshold value
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Examine these statements: 1) MOUNT mounts the database for certain DBA activities but does not
provide user access to the database. 2) The NOMOUNT command creates only the Data Buffer but does
not provide access to the database. 3 ) The OPEN command enables users to access the database. 4)
The STARTUP command starts an instance.
Which option correctly describes whether some or all of the statements are TRUE or FALSE?
A. 2 and 3 areTRUE
B. 1 and 3 areTRUE
C. 1 is TRUE, 4 is FALSE
D. 1 is FALSE, 4 is TRUE
E. 1 is FALSE, 3 is TRUE F. 2 is FALSE, 4 is FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.3 You created a tablespace SH_TBS. The tablespace consists of two data files: sh_tbs_data1.dbf and
sh_tbs_data2.dbf.You created a nonpartitioned table SALES_DET in the SH_TBS tablespace. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The data segment is created as soon as the table is created.
B. The data segment is created when the first row in the table is inserted.
C. You can specify the name of the data file where the data segment should be stored.
D. The header block of the data segment contains a directory of the extents in the segment.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 You intend to use only password authentication and have used the password file utility to create a
password file as follows:
$orapwd file=$ORACLE_HOME/dbs/orapwDB01 password=orapass entries=5 The
REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE initialization parameter is set to NONE. You created a user and
granted only the SYSDBA privilege to that user as follows:
CREATE USER dba_user IDENTIFIED BY dba_pass; GRANT sysdba TO dba_user; The user attempts
to connect to the database as follows: connect dba_user/dba_pass as sysdba; Why does the connection
fail?
A. The DBA privilege was not granted to dba_user.
B. REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is not set to EXCLUSIVE.
C. The password file has been created in the wrong directory.
D. The user did not specify the password orapass to connect as SYSDBA.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You plan to enable user tracing in your database. You changed the value of the SQL_TRACE
parameter to TRUE in the initialization parameter file and restarted the database. Which statement is true
in this scenario?
A. A trace file created at the time of creating the database is used and updated.
B. A trace file is created every time the database starts up and is common to all the sessions.
C. A trace file is created for every schema and is common to all the sessions connected to that schema.
D. A trace file is created for every new session and is updated whenever a SQL statement is executed in
that session.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three statements regarding an extent are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can belong to multiple segments.
B. It is a set of contiguous data blocks.
C. It can be allocated manually to a segment.
D. It may be deallocated when a table is truncated.
E. It is allocated when a new column without a DEFAULT value is added to a table.
Answer: BCD

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NO.7 You created the password file in your database server as follows: $ orapwd
file=$ORACLE_HOME/dbs/orapwdb password=dba entries=2 Further, you granted the SYSDBA
privilege to the user SCOTT who has TIGER as the password. What effect would the assigning of this
privilege have on Scott's password?
A. The password will not be effected and remain as TIGER.
B. The password will change from TIGER to DBA.
C. The password will be DBA when he connects as SYSDBA, and he can use either TIGER or DBA when
connecting asa normal user.
D. The password will be DBA when SCOTT connects as SYSDBA, and TIGER when connecting as a
normal user.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your database is currently configured with the database character set to WE8ISO8859P1 and
national character set toAL16UTF16.Business requirements dictate the need to expand language
requirements beyond the current character set, for Asian and additional Western European languages, in
the form of customer names and addresses. Which solution saves space storing Asian characters and
maintains consistent character manipulation performance?
A. Use SQL CHAR data types and change the database character set to UTF8.
B. Use SQL NCHAR data types and change the national character set to UTF8.
C. Use SQL CHAR data types and change the database character set to AL32UTF8.
D. Use SQL NCHAR data types and keep the national character set to AL16UTF16.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement regarding the creation of a dictionary-managed tablespace is true?
A. You cannot set the tablespace for NOLOGGING mode.
B. You can set segment space management clause to auto.
C. You can specify default storage for dictionary-managed tablespaces.
D. You cannot specify default storage for a tablespace that consists of an autoextensible data file.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which command can you use to display the date and time in the form 17:45:01 JUL-12-2000 using the
default US7ASCII character set?
A. ALTER SYSTEM SET NLS_DATE_FORMAT='HH24:MI:SS MON-DD-YYYY';
B. ALTER SESSION SET DATE_FORMAT='HH24:MI:SS MON-DD-YYYY';
C. ALTER SESSION SET NLS_DATE_FORMAT='HH24:MI:SS MON-DD-YYYY';
D. ALTER SYSTEM SET NLS_DATE_FORMAT='HH:MI:SS MON-DD-YYYY';
Answer: C

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NO.11 ABC Company consolidated into one office building, so the very large EMPLOYEES table no longer
requires the
OFFICE_LOCATION column. The DBA decided to drop the column using the syntax below: ALTER
TABLE hr.employees DROP COLUMN building_location CASCADE CONSTRAINTS;
Dropping this column has turned out to be very time consuming and is requiring a large amount of undo
space. What could the DBA have done to minimize the problem regarding time and undo space
consumption?
A. Use the Export and Import utilities to bypass undo.
B. Mark the column as UNUSED. Remove the column at a later time when less activity is on the system.
C. Drop all indexes and constraints associated with the column prior to dropping the column.
D. Mark the column INVALID prior to beginning the drop to bypass undo. Remove the column using the
DROP UNUSED COLUMNS command.
E. Add a checkpoint to the DROP UNUSED COLUMNS command to minimize undo space.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which process is started when a user connects to the Oracle server in a dedicated server mode?
A. DBWn
B. PMON
C. SMON
D. Server
Answer: D

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NO.13 In which situation should the control file be backed up?
A. when a checkpoint occurs
B. when you create a new schema
C. when you add a data file to a tablespace
D. when you execute any transactional control command
Answer: C

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NO.14 In your initialization parameter file, the RESOURCE_LIMIT parameter is set to FALSE. The database
users have a profile that contains both password and resource restrictions. What is the impact of this
parameter setting on the sessions of the database users?
A. All profile restrictions are effective for the sessions.
B. None of the profile restrictions are effective for the sessions.
C. Only the password restrictions are effective for the sessions.
D. No sessions can be created because the parameter is set to False.
Answer: C

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NO.15 When an Oracle instance is started, background processes are started. Background processes
perform which twofunctions? (Choose two.)
A. perform I/O
B. lock rows that are not data dictionary rows
C. monitor other Oracle processes
D. connect users to the Oracle instance
E. execute SQL statements issued through an application
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which two statements are true regarding temporary data files (temp files) in locally managed
temporary tablespaces? (Choose two.)
A. Temp files are always set to NOLOGGING mode.
B. It is possible to rename temp files.
C. Temp files can be created by the ALTER DATABASE command.
D. Temp files are required for read-only databases.
E. Temp files can be made read only.
Answer: AD

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NO.17 Which constraint state prevents new data that violates the constraint from being entered, but allows
invalid data toexist in the table?
A. ENABLE VALIDATE
B. DISABLE VALIDATE
C. ENABLE NOVALIDATE
D. DISABLE NOVALIDATE
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which are considered types of segments?
A. only LOBs
B. only nested tables
C. only index-organized tables
D. only LOBs and index-organized tables
E. only nested tables and index-organized tables
F. only LOBs, nested tables, and index-organized tables
G. nested tables, LOBs, index-organized tables, and boot straps
Answer: G

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NO.19 An INSERT statement failed and is rolled back. What does this demonstrate?
A. insert recovery
B. read consistency
C. transaction recovery
D. transaction rollback
Answer: D

Oracle test   1Z0-031   1Z0-031

NO.20 Which password management feature ensures a user cannot reuse a password for a specified time
interval?
A. Account Locking
B. Password History
C. Password Verification
D. Password Expiration and Aging
Answer: B

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