2013年10月31日星期四

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Exam Code: 000-M87
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Netezza Technical Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about Netezza privileges is NOT true?
A. Privileges are additiveou cannot remove a privilege from a user who has been granted that privilege as
a member of a group.
B. Object owners automatically have full access to their objects.
C. Users with privileges on an object can pass that object to others by default.
D. By default, newly created objects have no privileges associated with them.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is TRUE about the GROOM TABLE command.?
A. You must first run the nzstop command as the nz user from the host command line.
B. GROOM can materialize the results of previous ALTER TABLE ADD/DROP column
commands.
C. The table being groomed will be locked exclusively during the groom operation.
D. GROOM is an administrative command that must be run by a DBA.
Answer: B

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NO.3 With workload management, an Administrator can set aside _________ S-Blades to be used
exclusively with a given database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. all
D. 0
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-109
Exam Name: IBM (Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux - v2 )
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 An administrator is creating several LPARs on a new Power Systems server. The administrator knows
that Live Partition Mobility (LPM) will be used to distribute the workload between this new machine and
several others in the environment.
In addition to ensuring all storage is allocated through Virtual IO servers, what else must the administrator
take into consideration when creating the new LPARs?
A. LPAR names in the environment must be unique.
B. Redundant error path reporting must be configured.
C. Only LPARs belonging to the same workload group can be moved between servers.
D. The Virtual IO server code level must be the same across all servers.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is required to support AME?
A. AIX LPARs
B. Virtual I/O Server
C. A maximum of 4GB of RAM per LPAR
D. On-demand memory feature enabled
Answer: A

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NO.3 A Linux LPAR is configured using 802.1Q.
The virtual Ethernet device is configured as an 802.1Q compatible adapter and has VLAN ID 5 configured
in the 802.1Q additional VLAN field.
The administrator runs the following commands on the Linux LPAR shell without errors:
vconfig add eth0 5ifconfig eth0 10.0.0.2 netmask 255.255.255.0
When the administrator tries to ping 10.0.0.1, the request times out.
What is the problem?
A. The VLAN ID should be in the VLAN-ID field in the virtual Network device configuration.
B. The administrator is using the incorrect Ethernet device.
C. The 8021q module is not loaded.
D. The 802.1Q interfaces are not supported on Linux on Power Systems servers.
Answer: A

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NO.4 An administrator has a requirement to back up a VIO server (VIOS) so that it can be rebuilt in the event
of a disaster.
Which set of actions will achieve this requirement.?
A. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Backup all Storage Pool Information. Run a
mksysb of the system.
B. Save "Upgrade Data" on the HMC. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Run a mksysb
of the VIOS with the -U flag.
C. Backup non rootvg structures using savevgstruct. Capture virtual mappings to a file using viosbr. Run a
backupios
D. Capture the virtual network tuning to a file using the optimizenet command. Capture all virtual device
attributes to a file using the lsattr command. Run a backupios.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When attempting to install a VIO client using NIM, an adminstrator finds that no disks are available for
installation. The disks are provided by NPIV through the virtual Fibre Channel adapter as described here:
Which of the following explains why is the administrator unable to see the disks?
A. The virtual fibre channel device has not been assigned to the client.
B. The HBA on the VIO server is not connected to the SAN.
C. The fibre device drivers are missing from the SPOT.
D. The LUNs have been incorrectly zoned.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator is preparing to upgrade the environment's dual Virtual I/O servers (VIOS) from V1.2
to V2.1
What must considered in preparation for this upgrade?
A. All client LPARs must be shutdown as both VIO servers have to be upgraded to V2.1 at the same time.
B. The VIOS must be upgraded to the latest fixpack of V1.5 before upgrading to V2.1.
C. The only upgrade method that will be supported is using NIM because the current VIOS is lower than
V1.3.
D. VIOS V2.1 requires AIX clients to be running AIX V6.1 at a minimum.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator is designing a new system for their existing batch environment. The current system is
a POWER5 570 with 16 cores and 128GB of RAM with a single LPAR running AIX 5.3. It takes 12 hours
to run their large batch job which is heavily CPU bound on 4 the available CPUs.
The new system will be a Power 770 with 16 cores, 128GB of RAM and the LPAR will run AIX 6.1.What
should be done to maximize the batch performance?
A. Activate TurboCore mode during batch processing
B. Disable Simultaneous Multi-threading
C. Disable Multiple Shared Processor Pools
D. Set the processor compatibility mode to POWER7
Answer: B

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NO.8 A Power 720 is being used to build 2 environments: Test and Production, with 2 LPARs in each
environment. Processor resources must be separated between the Test and Production environments to
reduce possible contention, while still being able to share processor resources inside each own
environment.
What are the two features required, as a minimum, to accomplish this? (Select 2)
A. IVM
B. HMC
C. PowerVM Express
D. PowerVM Standard
E. IVE
F. IBM Systems Director
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 The wlmstat -@ 2 command has been run from a global environment with the following results:
What action can an administrator take to set limits, so that both server1 and server2 use the same amount
of CPU resources?
A. Use the cpu_deallocate -P command to reduce the CPU resources on server2
B. Use the chsysres command to assign the same CPU attributes to both servers.
C. Use the chwpar -R command to set the CPU attributes for each server.
D. Use the syncwpar -E command to copy the CPU resource allocation from server1 to server2.
Answer: C

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NO.10 An administrator is attempting to configure a new deployment of 56 POWER7 Blades across 4 IBM
BladeCenter H chassis. Each blade will be installed with an IVM and 2 LPARs.IVM is installed and the
administrator checks that both LHEA ports are reporting a Link State of "Up." 2 LPARs are created and the
network traffic balanced by allocating one LHEA port to the first LPAR, the second port to the other. After
successfully installing the first LPAR via NIM, the administrator finds the second LPAR fails to netboot.
What should the administrator verify on the BladeCenter Chassis?
A. That 4 power supplies (PSU) have been installed.
B. That both the external LHEA ports have been cabled.
C. That a secondary I/O module has been installed and cabled.
D. That the Multi-Core Scaling (MCS) attribute is correctly set on both LHEA ports.
Answer: C

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NO.11 An administrator is performing a Live Partition Mobility (LPM) operation between two servers managed
by different HMCs.
While monitoring the performance of the partition, the virtual console window suddenly closes. What is the
most likely cause?
A. The virtual console is controlled by the HMC and closes when the second takes control of the partition.
B. The virtual console is a connection to the FSP of the physical server and closes when the LPAR
migrates.
C. The SSH keys have not been exchanged between HMCs.
D. The FSP has the MAC address for the first HMC cached in NVRAM.
Answer: B

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NO.12 How can an existing AIX 5.2 LPAR, which is using SAN storage, be migrated into a versioned WPAR
(Workload Partition)?
A. Using LPM, but downtime will be required.
B. Dynamically using LAM.
C. Backup and restore a mksysb.
D. Rezone the SAN storage and use NPIV.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Requirements for a disaster recovery site are being collected. When considering restoring a VIO Server
mksysb to disaster recovery hardware,
what is required to ensure automatic virtual device recreation?
A. LPAR profiles must be accurately recreated on the foreign machine
B. Backups of both mksysb and user-defined structures are required from the VIO Server
C. The foreign machine must be of the same model and type
D. Configuration of the existing HMC needs to be preserved
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator must remove any installed efixes before attempting to install a new VIO Fix Pack.
Which VIO command will advise if any VIO efixes are actually present?
A. lslpp
B. emgr
C. lssw
D. oem_platform_level
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator has the following configuration on a VIO Server:
Why is this error being displayed?
A. ent3 is configured as 'standard' instead of '802.3ad'
B. ent3 is a LHEA port and requires the -L flag
C. ent3 has no interface connected
D. ent3 is controlled by the SEA
Answer: D

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NO.16 An LPAR is configured using Virtual IO. It has two Virtual SCSI adapters, connecting it to two VIO
servers.
The disks presented over Virtual SCSI are available across both Virtual SCSI adapters (2 paths).
Assuming 20 disks are required, what is the maximum recommended queue depth to maximize
performance?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 510
D. 512
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which interface must be used to provide virtualization of tape library devices to client LPARs?
A. USB
B. LTO
C. Virtual SCSI
D. Virtual Fibre Channel
Answer: D

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NO.18 An architect is looking at the implications of uncapped weights for a new POWER7 system. The
system will consist of four uncapped logical partitions with the following weightings:
Assuming all partitions have equal entitlement and virtual processor configurations in the partition profiles,
and request additional resources from the shared processor pool over a period of 1000 cycles, how many
cycles will be allocated to LPAR B?
A. 150
B. 250
C. 300
D. 1000
Answer: C

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NO.19 What tool can an architect use to determine which is the smallest POWER7 server that will provide
equal or better overall performance than a POWER5 570?
A. Facts and Features Guide
B. LPAR Validation Tool
C. Configurator for eBusiness
D. Server Magic
Answer: A

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NO.20 What will cause a broadcast storm when configuring redundant VIO servers with SEA failover?
A. The secondary SEA is brought online before the configured primary SEA.
B. A mismatch of defined VLANs between the primary and secondary SEA.
C. The secondary SEA is created before enabling failover on the primary SEA.
D. Incorrect EtherChannel configuration on one SEA
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M44
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SUT Advanced Level Technical Sales Mastery v1.0)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What are typical functions of a Session Boarder Controller?
A. Security ?to protect the network against attacks.
B. Connectivity ?NAT in the application layer.
C. Quality of Server ?Prioritization of flows.
D. A, B and C
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which tool can add SUT subscribers?
A. CMP ?Common Management Portal
B. SBC ?Session Border Controller
C. TDI ?Tivoli Directory Integrator
D. A and C
Answer: C

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NO.3 Where can redundancy be applied?
A. Entire systems (to all components of system).
B. To the HD.
C. To the NIC.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How many stand-by TAS do you need.?
A. One.
B. At least one per cluster using the same SAN-resources.
C. As many as the active TAS's.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How are the SUT user privileges for preferred devices managed?
A. Via a hidden config file on the client PC.
B. Via Policy settings on Sametime server.
C. Via registry entries on client PC.
D. Via different software versions of client plug-in.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What parameter of a SUT soft-phone client can you configure?
A. Allowed codecs.
B. Sequence of codecs in a list.
C. Rights to add/modify preferred devices.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which sequence for Initial Provisioning is correct?
A. Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
B. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Running the initial
provisioning process - Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
C. Installing TDI - Configuring setting section of settings.xml - Running the initial provisioning process -
Importing the csv-output file via CMP.
D. Installing TDI - Configuring settings and attribute mapping section of settings.xml - Importing the
csv-output file via CMP.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A Session Boarder Controller can protect against _______________
A. denial of service attacks.
B. excessive phone usage.
C. data loss.
D. loud dial tone volume
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which methods are defined to transfer the Billing Data to the Billing Server?
A. Push and Pull Method.
B. Send and Fetch Method.
C. Bring and Take Method.
D. Deliver and Retrieve Method.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What should be considered if a large configuration for TAS is planned?
A. There must be a 1:1 relation TAS to allocated media server.
B. At least one additional server for fail over purposes is required.
C. A maximum of 15000 users is allowed.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.1 You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information Server console
installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited (csv) file.
Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as a
Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as
a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the TXT output
option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option providing the
correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution option providing
the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting stylesheet ; run
the command and send the file.
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 You are setting up an automated process to run a set of data rules on a weekly basis. You want to
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subsequent reports. Which of the following do you need to evaluate?
A. Select the -runTasks option specifying the -getExecutionStatus parameter and evaluate the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
B. Select the -getExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
C. Select the -getExecutableRule option specifying the -getExecutionHistory and -ruleName parameters
and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleResult> element.
D. Select the -getExecutableRule/ExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and
evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleExecutionHistory> element.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN's (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN's are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You submitted a column analysis job with the "Retain Scripts" set to no. The column analysis job
finished with an "error encountered" final message. You have access to the DataStage Director client.
Which option would allow you to find the source of the error.?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine the error.
B. Rerun the job with the "Retain Scripts" turned on. The error message will be returned to the Information
Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and examine the
job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage Director, release
the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
Answer: A

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NO.5 While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will allow you to
troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When analyzing large number of columns in Information Analyzer, which two components may require
capacity planning review? (Choose two.)
A. Disk space on the Engine layer.
B. Disk space on the Application Server.
C. Buffer pools on the Application Server.
D. Information Server Metadata repository.
E. Information Analyzer Analysis database.
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule definition in an
existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProjectName>&rule
Name=<YourRuleName>
Answer: B

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NO.8 In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction of the analysis
and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis database) for
the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using Information server
security to restrict access.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with issues and
resolutions.
You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you create and
review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report
Answer: C

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NO.10 When creating a Scheduling View, which two of the following options can be configured? (Choose
two.)
A. Status > Schedule > Pending
B. Status > Task Run > Abnormally Ended
C. Status > Task Run > Successfully Ended
D. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Export Project
E. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Report Execution
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two statements identify ways
you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Answer: A,D

IBM   000-423   000-423

NO.12 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information Analyzer analysis
database.
Which statement is true?
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Answer: C

IBM   000-423   000-423

NO.14 You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records. What steps can
you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates; apply duplicate
check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase the number of
possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns;
incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Answer: C

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NO.15 When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of the reporting
functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Answer: C,E

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NO.1 A customer recently ordered a z196 with a zBX.Which of the following is the best action a specialist
could take to ensure the customer is satisfied with the new zBX?
A.Review the hardware support process and the HMC documentation for the z196 CPC and the zBX
B.Conduct and "Fit for Purpose Study"
C.Conduct a z/VM Implementation Workshop
D.Mentor the customer on installing PowerVM and VMware
Answer: A

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NO.2 Once the sale of a System z has been made, which of the following individuals is responsible to ensure
that the implementation plan is executed?
A.IBM or Business Partner TDA Leader
B.IBM or Business Partner Technical Specialist
C.IBM Installation Planning Representative
D.IBM or Business Partner Client Representative
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is planning an upgrade to a z114.They have indicated that they will be adding additional disk
storage in the future and want to make sure they have room for non disruptive future I/O growth.Which of
the following is the appropriate first action for the Technical Specialist?
A.Use the eConfig Plan Ahead feature to place an order for an additional I/O drawer but don
order any
cards until they need them.
B.Ask the sales specialist to give the customer a discount and order the cards at the end of the quarter
C.Carefully plan out the upgrade based upon the current I/O configuration.Confirm there is enough room
to support and add a future I/O drawer if needed.
D.The z114 hardware model M10 has more I/O adapters so you should order the M10 model which will
assure you have room for future growth.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer is considering a z196 with a zBX.Which of the following is the best action a specialist could
take to ensure customer satisfaction?
A.Conduct a "Fit for Purpose Study"
B.Conduct a z/VM Implementation Workshop
C.Mentor the customer on installing PowerVM and VMware
D.Review the hardware support process and the HMC documentation for the z196 CPC and the zBX
Answer: A

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NO.5 ISPF uses various function keys. Which of the following describes the mapping of these keys?
A.Different in every ISPF menu
B.Determined by operating system
C.Fixed by ISPF and cannot be changed
D.May be changed using the ISPF SETTINGS function
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 000-M602
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Banking Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What will be the focus of consumers who were hurt by the recent market crisis?
A. Solutions for retirement spending
B. Solutions for vacation property
C. Solutions for investment income
D. Solutions for retirement income
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is one of the areas that banks need to address to become more customer-centric in their
products, services, and offerings?
A. Bookkeeping changes
B. Select banking
C. Demographic changes
D. Changing banking hours
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a key focus for banks in the Asia Pacific region?
A. Interpersonal expansion
B. Industrial expansion
C. Internal expansion
D. International expansion
Answer: D

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NO.4 What happened to banking operating profit margins between 1995 and 2005?
A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Remained the same
D. Plunged
Answer: B

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NO.5 USAA Bank has come up with a really interesting device. What is it?
A. Devices that can take a picture of your family
B. Devices that take a picture of your banking transactions at an ATM
C. Devices that can take a picture of your check
D. Devices that can take a picture of your passport
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-448
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Content Collector (ICC) v2.2 )
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Total Q&A: 142 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT required when performing a change in message queue directory for the
SMTP Receiver?
A. Enabling SMTP Authentication.
B. Stopping and starting the SMTP Receiver service.
C. Making sure that no active antivirus scans are running on the selected directory.
D. Selecting a directory where STMP Receiver stores the emails processed by SMTP connector.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Where would you go to determine where Content Collector logs are being written?
A. Content Collector installation directory
B. Content Collector log configuration utility
C. ContentCollector Configuration Manager
D. Content Collector Configuration Database
Answer: C

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NO.3 When using an IBM FileNet P8 Repository, what must happen after modifying the styleset files that are
used to create an index?
A. Stop and restart the ICC FileNet P8 Repository Connector service.
B. Re-index the existing object store.
C. Remove the index and then recreate the index for an existing object store.
D. Re-index the index area by committing the job automatically in the Index Jobs Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.4 If the default ports for the ICC web application are already in use, which WebSphere Application
Server configuration file needs to be modified to change the port numbers?
A. key.p12
B. web.xml
C. notes.ini
D. portdef.props
Answer: D

IBM   000-448   000-448 test questions

NO.5 ICC uses a Lotus Notes address book to resolve mailbox IDs. How is it configured using the ICC
Configuration Manager?
A. In the "address" tab of each collector task within mail archiving tasks, under "address book usage",
select either of "Public" or "Private".
B. In the "address" tab of the Lotus Notes email connector, under "address book usage", select "Public".
C. In the "address" tab of the Lotus Notes email connector, enter the host name of the active directory
server to be used.
D. Modify the location of the Notes address book to the notes.ini file, that is used by ICC, identified by the
tab "connection" of the Lotus Notesemail connector.
Answer: B

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NO.6 When using the File System Source Connector to process files on other machines, what permissions
are needed?
A. Write access to the target content files only.
B. Administrator privileges on the local ICC server only.
C. Read and write access to the target P8 or CM8 repository.
D. Full access rights to domain machines where the target content files are stored.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When you configure the Sharepoint connector in ICC which two user id formats can be used if you do
not specify the domain? (Choose two.)
A. UPN (User Principal Name)
B. URL (Uniform Resource Locator)
C. PNC (Principal Naming Convention)
D. UNC (Universal Naming Convention)
E. FHS (FileSystem Hierarchy Standard)
Answer: A,D

IBM   000-448   000-448 test questions

NO.8 The ICC SMTP Connector service account must have what permissions?
A. Full access to the SMTP trigger mailbox.
B. Full access rights to the SMTP message queue directory.
C. Local user account with full access rights to all file locations.
D. In a scale-out environment, administrator rights to the SMTP message queue directory on the primary
node only.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You want to enable a Notes template for archiving using the ICC setup tools. If this is a template for a
non mail application, which entry does NOT need to be provided?
A. The template name.
B. Availability of the menu entry for the Search function.
C. Availability of the menu entry for the Restore function.
D. The name of the Content Collector Actions submenu.
Answer: B

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NO.10 When is the IBM FileNet P8 Connector definition created?
A. During the software installation process.
B. During the installation of the prerequisites.
C. When you run the Initial Configuration wizard.
D. When opening Configuration Manager for the first time.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the command line syntax for installing Content Collector Notes Client Extension in silent mode?
A. install.exe -i SILENT <full_path_to_response_file> -f
B. install.exe SILENT -f <full_path_to_response_file> -i
C. install.exe -i SILENT -f <full_path_to_response_file>
D. install.exe <full_path_to_response_file> -i SILENT -f
Answer: C

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NO.12 Where is the ICC Web Application logging level set?
A. In the %IBMAFUROOT%\AFUWeb\configuration\config.ini file.
B. In the Start parameters field of the ICC Web Application service properties.
C. Through the ICC Web Application shortcut under the ICC Set-up Tools menu.
D. On the Log Settings tab of the ICC Configuration Manager Web Application page.
Answer: D

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NO.13 If you use DB2 Content Manager as your repository, what must be installed on the library server prior
to running the initial configuration wizard?
A. DB2 Text Support
B. DB2 Control Center
C. FileNet Java Client API
D. Content Collector Text Search Support
Answer: D

IBM   000-448   000-448

NO.14 "Client Configuration" settings are used in conjunction with which of the following Connectors?
A. All Connectors
B. Lotus Domino and Microsoft Exchange
C. IBM Content Manager and IBM FileNet P8
D. File System Source and Microsoft SharePoint
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the first step required to enable offline repositories in Lotus Domino?
A. Replace the design of your mail database by the mail template that is enabled for Content Collector.
B. Specify the recipients of the user notification memo and add any information that you want to
communicate. Then send the memo.
C. From the inbox of your mail database, select Actions > Install IBM InfoSphere Content Collector Offline
Repository to create a memo.
D. Right-click the Install IBM InfoSphere Content Collector Offline Repository hotspot in the user
notification memo and then click Edit. At thebottom of the window that opens, add a blank line in front of
the On Error Goto processError line to suppress any No signature warnings.
Answer: A

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NO.16 The Outlook Web Access Service must be installed on a server running which web service.?
A. Apache
B. Exchange
C. Websphere
D. Internet Information Service (IIS)
Answer: D

IBM   000-448 pdf   000-448

NO.17 What prerequisite must be installed on the IBM Content Collector server before you can create
connections to IBM Content Manager?
A. ICC Integrator for CM
B. ICC CM Connection Manager
C. IBM Information Integrator for Content
D. IBM Content Manager Client for Windows
Answer: C

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NO.18 What service(s) must be restarted when you change the user account of the E-Mail Connector service
and the Web Applications service?
A. IBM ICC Web Applications service.
B. IBM ICC Information Center service and IBM ICC Web Applications service.
C. IBM ICC E-Mail Connector service and IBM ICC Task Routing Engine service.
D. IBM ICC Task Routing Engine service and IBM ICC Web Applications service.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Where is the Content Collector Outlook Extension installed?
A. On the ICC Server only.
B. On the Exchange Server.
C. On the client workstations only.
D. On the client workstations and ICC Server.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which activity is responsible for extracting text from an email attachment for full-text indexing with
FileNet P8?
A. Configuring the Text Extraction Connector.
B. Setting up "Extract Text" task node in a task route.
C. Setting up "Extract Metadata" task node in the task route.
D. Setting up "EC Extract Attachments" task node in the task route.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N02
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Managed File Transfer Technical Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 33 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 IBM Sterling File Gateway supports which of the following protocols?
A.FTP/S, HTTP/S, SSH/SFTP, AS2, and Connect:Direct
B.FTP and HTTP only
C.Async, Bisync, FTP, HTTP, and AS2
D.FTP, HTTP, SSH/SFTP, and AS2
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is a common reason why a customer would require the capabilities of IBM
Sterling File Gateway?
A.Costs to manage and troubleshoot data exchange activity are too high.
B.Onboarding trading partners takes too long and delays revenue opportunities.
C.Lots of unmanaged and highly unsecure data is being exchanged.
D.All of the above are reasons why a customer would require IBM Sterling File Gateway.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT an example of the Visibility & Monitoring capability of IBM Sterling Control
Center?
A.Role-based permissions.
B.Multiple types of notifications, including SNMP and console alerts.
C.Rules and event engine.
D.Graphical summary status displays.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a key capability of IBM Sterling Control Center?
A.Consolidated logging, reporting, and analytics.
B.Configuration management of IBM Sterling Connect:Direct servers.
C.Alerts and notifications.
D.Configuration management of IBM WebSphere MQ File Transfer Edition.
E.All of the above are key capabilities of IBM Sterling Control Center.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which IBM Managed File Transfer solution provides B2B onboarding and file transfer via mailboxing?
A.IBM Sterling Connect:Direct
B.IBM WebSphere MQ File Transfer Edition
C.IBM WebSphere Mailbox Extender (WMX)
D.IBM Sterling File Gateway
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-603
Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z Solution Sales V6)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer is considering Linux solution. There are several competitive solutions under consideration.
The System z sales specialist is considering System z Solution Edition for Enterprise Linux or an IBM
Enterprise Linux Server. Which of the following is included in these offering.?
A. Predefined hardware, software, services
B. Predefined hardware, Linux subscription, and Linux services
C. IBM middleware, Extended Warranty, VMContol
D. RACF, zAAP , DirMaint
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer recently ordered a zEnterprise with a zBX. Which of the following is the best action the sales
specialist could take to ensure the customer is satisfied with the new zBX?
A. Propose a Fit For Purpose Study
B. Schedule an implementation planning meeting
C. Propose Extended Warranty Contract for the zBX
D. Propose an Early Ship Program (ESP) for running their AIX applications
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is a key benefit to customers who deploy zEnterprise compared to other
solutions?
A. Virtualization and hardware management across multiple platforms
B. A management solution that provides support across multiple x86 hypervisors.
C. A management solution for the complete mulit-vendor infrastructure within a datacenter.
D. A hypervisor infrastructure that allows movement of an application online between different
architectures.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A System z Sales Specialist is preparing a proposal for a z10 customer for a potential upgrade to
zEnterprise system. They need to propose a z196 model with 20% growth to the existing capacity. How
can the seller best determine the right model for the customer?
A. Refer to the MIPS table to find the matching model
B. Discuss with the customer to find out what is their preferred model
C. Engage Techline to perform capacity planning on the current machine
D. Use Sales Plays to find correct model
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer requested System z software details and pricing. Which IBM tool would be utilized to
configure the software products?
A. zPCR
B. zIAW
C. eConfig
D. CFSW
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M237
Exam Name: IBM (IBM B2B Integration-Network-Managed File Transfer Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What are the 3 primary types of data movement?
A. B2B, A2A, and Batch
B. Batch, B2B, and E-mail
C. Batch, B2B, and Unmanaged
D. B2B, E-mail, and FTP
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the visibility and control characteristics of IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. SQL queries are used to directly access the message database.
B. Long term storage and archiving.
C. Configurable dashboards, EDI / B2B tracking and reporting.
D. Links directly to IBM WebSphere Business Monitor.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are some tangible business benefits that customers achieve from using Sterling B2B Integrator.?
A. Rapidly develop new sales channels.
B. Cut B2B development and implementation time by up to 75%.
C. Improve visibility of inventory and shipment status across the supply chain.
D. On board smaller partners at minimal cost.
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What type of visibility is available in IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. Configurable dashboards and reports.
B. Detailed visibility of end-to-end business processes.
C. EDI tracking.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 All of the top_____ banks in the world depend upon IBM Sterling Managed File Transfer to secure their
data movement.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.6 The IBM Sterling Collaboration Network archives data for how long at no additional charge?
A. 3 days
B. 35 days
C. 45 days
D. 15 days
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the strategic foundation platform for IBM's B2B software solutions?
A. Connect:Direct
B. WebSphere Transformation Extender
C. IBM Sterling B2B Integrator
D. IBM Sterling Collaboration Network
Answer: C

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NO.8 What capabilities are required to optimize your dynamic business network?
A. B2B communications
B. Process automation
C. Community enablement
D. Visibility
E. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In a customer success story, Kroger reports that they transfer over _______ of data per day using
IBM/Sterling managed file transfer solutions.
A. 500 GB
B. 1 TB
C. 5 TB
D. 10 TB
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT a ° m us t hav ¡± capa b ili ty fo r cu st om ers t h a t are a t t em p t i n g to s ol v e t h e i
data movement challenges?
A. Pass tougher security audits.
B. Double their transfer capacity without increasing staff.
C. Cut new connection cycle time in half.
D. Remove the FTP risk.
E. All are ° m us t hav ¡± capa b ilit i e s
Answer: A

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