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Exam Code: HP0-M39
Exam Name: HP (HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are the advantages of automated testing? (Select three.)
A. easier
B. consistent
C. reusable
D. proactive
E. abstract
F. productive
Answer: BCF

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NO.2 Identify the available column names in the Keyword View. (Select four.)
A. value
B. documentation
C. object
D. record settings
E.property
F. method G. operation H. item
Answer: ABGH

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NO.3 Which QuickTest Professional feature displays the recorded steps in graphical format?
A. Data Table
B. Active Screen
C. Keyword View
D. Expert View
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which actions can you perform using the Active Screen? (Select two.)
A. Modify objects.
B. Insert standard checkpoints.
C. Insert XML checkpoints.
D. Insert transactions.
E.Insert steps.
Answer: BE

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NO.5 How can you add recordable or nonrecordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
Answer: ABE

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NO.6 In which Options tab can you set the option to minimize the space your stored test will require?
A. Active Screen
B. General
C. Run
D. Environment
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which QuickTest Professional features can be customized using the Customize menu command?
(Select two.)
A. Menus
B. General options
C. Test Settings
D. Active Screen
E.Toolbars
Answer: AE

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NO.8 How does QuickTest Professional identify each object you record?
A. by class and properties
B. by class and methods
C. by methods and properties
D. by class only
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which term is used to define the name QuickTest Professional assigns to a recorded object?
A. Physical Name
B. Object Name
C. Repository Name
D. Logical Name
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are examples of a visual cue condition? (Select two.)
A. A button becomes visible.
B. A record is inserted in the database.
C. A progress bar displays.
D. A button becomes enabled.
E.A bitmap displays.
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Click Next or More to continue. Click the Task button. Click on the timeout value for the
synchronization point defined in the script shown in the screenshot.
Answer:

NO.12 You record and save your test on a shared network drive as SampleWebTest.
What is created on the shared drive?
A. a file named SampleWebTest.qtp
B. a folder named SampleWebTest
C. a file named SampleWebTest_Action1
D. a temporary folder structure
Answer: B

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NO.13 During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to
achieve testing goals.
Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?
A. input data
B. parameters
C. initial and end conditions
D. visual cues
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which Active Screen capture level is the default setting?
A. Complete
B. Limited
C. Partial
D. Minimum
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of.?
A. calls to actions
B. calls to actions (reusable only)
C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. calls and copies of actions
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-S28
Exam Name: HP (Intergrating & Managing HP Blade System Solutions in Enterprise)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You want to receive an email notification if a blade in a particular enclosure has a hardware failure.
Where do you navigate in HP SIM to accomplish this.?
A. Tasks > Alerts > Paging
B. User > Event Notification > Email
C. Options > Events > Automatic Event Handling
D. Options > User Notifications > Email Distributor
Answer: C

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NO.2 When configuring Virtual Connect local accounts using CLI, which access privileges can be assigned?
(Select three.)
A. Domain
B. Server
C. User
D. Storage
E. Administrator
F. Operator
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 Which software components must be installed before you can install HP Insight Control? (Select two.)
A. Application Server Console
B. Microsoft iSCSI Initiator
C. Certificate Services
D. Internet Information Services
E. Email Services
Answer: BD

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NO.4 What must be done to keep previous user credentials when upgrading an HP Systems Insight Manager
Central Management Server (CMS) from version 3.0 to a current version?
A. Use the CMS Import Utility.
B. Use the Database Converter Tool.
C. Use the CMS Migration Tool.
D. Use the Database Upgrade Utility.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which HP Enterprise Virtual Array snapshot concept is shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. Snapclone
B. Demand-allocated snapshot
C. Mirrorclone
D. Fully-allocated snapshot
Answer: D

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NO.6 The customer has an environment of multiple web servers and two database servers all running on
Microsoft Windows 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. The requirement is to provide high availability for data
and efficient access to the web farm. Which solution meets the needs of this customer?
A. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for both the web servers and database servers
B. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a quorum disk model server
cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
C. A rotating standby cluster to support the web farm and a quorum disk model server cluster to provide
high availability for the database servers
D. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a Majority Node Set (MNS)
server cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Task button. Click on the Windows option that allows a system administrator to install HP
Insight Control on a Windows server that will be used to deploy Linux servers
Answer:

NO.8 Which statement is true about managing ESX hosts that are controlled by a second Virtual Center
server?
A. Each Virtual Center server needs an extra license for HP SIM.
B. Insight Control must be version 6.0 or greater.
C. The total number of virtual machines managed by a Virtual Center server must not exceed 200.
D. Virtual Center servers managed by one SIM server need to be on the same subnet.
Answer: B

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NO.9 The customer wants to upgrade the memory in an existing BL460 G6. Using the HP DDR3 Memory
Configuration Tool, what is the easiest way to examine the existing memory configuration?
A. Use Insight Diagnostics on the involved blade.
B. Use memconfig and upload that information.
C. Use the HP System Management Homepage.
D. Upload the diag.log to the Memory Config Tool.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which method is recommended when deploying a Windows 2008 operating system on an Integrity
Server Blade?
A. Use make_net_recovery
B. Use HP Insight Rapid Deployment software
C. Use third-party imaging tools
D. Use EFI management options
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which HP offering helps IT staff to use their systems more efficiently, resulting in a higher return on IT
investments?
A. Education Services
B. OpenView Storage Mirroring
C. Customer Self Repair
D. SupportPlus Services
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customers c7000 enclosure has 10 fans installed. The fan in bay 2 fails. There are no blades that are
powered on in device bays 5 through 8 or in device bays 13 through 16. Which statements are true in this
situation? (Select two.)
A. The fan subsystem is no longer redundant.
B. The fan subsystem is still redundant.
C. The blade in device bay 2 powers down.
D. The failed fan is marked failed.
E. The failed fan is marked as degraded.
F. The blade in device bay 1 powers down.
Answer: BD

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NO.13 When designing a BladeSystem hardware solution in order to prevent system failures, which questions
should you ask? (Select two.)
A. How much money or productivity is lost per minute of downtime?
B. What administrative efforts are required to fix problems?
C. When was the last failure?
D. What is the duration of the backup window?
E. What is the disk I/O throughput?
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which statement is correct regarding the subnet manager when designing an HP BladeSystem
solution using InfiniBand in a Windows environment?
A. A subnet manager has to be installed on a Linux host.
B. A subnet manager is automatically installed on the first InfiniBand module.
C. A subnet manager can run host-based and switch-based.
D. A subnet manager is optional.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which HP resource can help to plan and verify a consolidated storage infrastructure in combination
with an HP BladeSystem solution?
A. HP Replication Systems Manager
B. HP Storage Sizing Tool
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP SalesBuilder for Windows
Answer: C

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NO.16 You want to restart the Virtual Connect Manager after changes are made. Which CLI command should
you use to accomplish this?
A. reipl vcm
B. reload vcm
C. reboot vcm
D. reset vcm
Answer: D

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NO.17 Detecting a clustered host failure is accomplished by monitoring the heartbeats sent between the hosts.
You plan to test the heartbeat connection to cause a failover. Which networks are used in VMware for the
heartbeats? (Select two.)
A. On ESX hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
B. On ESXi hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
C. On ESX hosts, the service console network is used.
D. On ESXi hosts, the service console network is used.
Answer: BC

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NO.18 On what can Insight Control 6x Central Management Server (CMS) be installed? (Select two.)
A. Citrix XenServer 4.5 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
B. Citrix XenServer 5.5 using Windows 2008 Standard R2 virtual machine
C. VMware ESX 3.5 Update 4 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
D. Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 using Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise 32-bit virtual machine
E. VMware ESX 4 using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP1 virtual machine
F. Microsoft Server 2008 R2 with Hyper-V using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP2 32-bit virtual machine
Answer: CF

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NO.19 What are valid HP SIM report formats? (Select two.)
A. XML
B. RPT
C. RTF
D. CSV
E. DOC
Answer: AD

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NO.20 What is the recommended resource to determine the power and cooling requirements of your
configuration?
A. HP BladeSystem Power Sizer
B. HP ProLiant Cooling Advisor
C. HP Thermal Logic
D. HP BladeSystem Spreadsheet
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Z17
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Network Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer considering an HP Networking solution is concerned about power usage. You inform the
customer that Miercom certified HP Networking solutions as "Green." What did Miercom find concerning
HP switch energy consumption?
A. HP switches use as much as 20% less energy than the competition.
B. HP switches use as much as 30% less energy than the competition.
C. HP switches use as much as 40% less energy than the competition.
D. HP switches use as much as 50% less energy than the competition.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which recent acquisition demonstrates HP's commitment to provide the best enterprise networking
solution?
A. Palm
B. Nortel
C. Citrix
D. 3Com/H3C
Answer: D

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NO.3 The A-Series portfolio is perfect for which customers?
A. companies with small and/or simple deployments
B. companies with large and/or complex deployments
C. small companies
D. large companies
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has a legacy, proprietary technology that lacks choice. You tell the customer that HP
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solutions?
A. HP Networking solutions provide up to 10% lower cost of ownership.
B. HP Networking solutions provide up to 15% lower cost of ownership.
C. HP Networking solutions provide up to 35% lower cost of ownership.
D. HP Networking solutions provide up to 65% lower cost of ownership.
Answer: D

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business demands?
A. Converged Infrastructure
B. Management Infrastructure
C. Data Infrastructure
D. Monitoring Infrastructure
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J39
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP P4000 SAN Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which statements about remote copies are correct? (Select two.)
A. Remote copiescan not be mounted.
B. Remote copies are always thin provisioned.
C. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas of a volume.
D. Remote copies can be synchronous and asynchronous.
E. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas between different clusters.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A design consists of an HP P4000 SAN solution installed across four sites. How many servers running
the central management console are required to manage the solution?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are potential purposes to utilize snapshots? (Select two.)
A. to restore files without tape or backup software
B. to protect against unintended manual data deletion
C. to protect against disk failures
D. to protect against multiple hardware failures
E. to prevent sensitive data from modification
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which benefit does a virtual IP load balancing (VIPLB) initiator provide?
A. directsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage module
B. supports simultaneousiSCSI communication with multiple storage modules
C. selects the next storage module in the list foriSCSI communication
D. prefers the fastest connection foriSCSI communication
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which HBA and iSCSI initiator combination does the iSCSI protocol support? (Select two.)
A. iSCSI HBA with TCP offload engine (TOE)
B. softwareiSCSI initiator with Fibre Channel HBA
C. softwareiSCSI initiator with InfiniBand HBA
D. iSCSI Fibre Channel HBA with TCP TOE software iSCSI initiator
E. softwareiSCSI initiator with NIC
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Which instance is responsible for access control?
A. cluster
B. server
C. management group
D. volume
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is a major enhancement of SAN/iQ 8.5 over SAN/iQ 8.1?
A. Network RAID 1 and 10
B. Network RAID 5 and 6
C. application-managed snapshots
D. thin provisionedSmartClone
Answer: B

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NO.8 How does the HP P4000 SAN solution allow aggregate application performance to be increased when
capacity is added?
A. Capacity and performance are adjusted on a linear scale.
B. Application priority can be adjusted.
C. Capacity and performance are dynamically adjusted to maintain balance.
D. Capacity and performance are balanced through the configuration of expansion modules.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are characteristics of device specific module MPIO (DSM MPIO)? (Select two.)
A. DSM MPIO redirectsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage node.
B. DSM MPIO communication offers better performance than non-DSM MPIO communication.
C. DSM MPIO is available for all operating systems withiSCSI support.
D. DSM MPIO provides the servers with the data mapping of each node.
E. DSM MPIO provides a set of built-in data transport security features.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button. Which network protocol should be enabled when using ProCurve switches in an
iSCSI storage network?
A. Mesh Protocol
B. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol
C. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which operating systems does the HP P4000 SAN solution support? (Select three.)
A. Solaris 9
B. OS X Leopard 10.5.5
C. HP OpenVMS 8.3
D. Novell NetWare 6.5
E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.12 At which level in HP P4000 SAN solutions is RAID configured?
A. storage node
B. volume
C. management group
D. cluster
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are the correct steps to create a remote copy on a P4000 G2?
A. Create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
B. Create the primary volume, create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
C. Create the remote volume andsnapshot, link the primary volume to the remote snapshot, copy the
data.
D. Create the primary snapshot, create the remote volume and snapshot, link it to the primary
snapshot,copy the data.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statements about HP P4000 SAN Network RAID levels are correct? (Select three.)
A. Copies are located on different clusters.
B. Redundant copies of blocks reside on different storage nodes.
C. Performance improves as the number of copies increases.
D. Up to four copies can be created.
E. The Network RAID level is defined per storage node.
F. The number of storage nodes in the cluster can limit the Network RAID level.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.15 What is the recommended network latency on a multi-site SAN subnet?
A. below 2 ms
B. below 5 ms
C. below 9 ms
D. below 15 ms
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which RADIUS packet includes the Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) that are applied to customize a user
connection?
A. Access-Update
B. Access-Request
C. Accounting-Request
D. Access-Accept
Answer: D

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NO.2 Routed ACLs (RACLs) can be used to filter traffic on an HP E5400 zl switch. Which traffic is
inspected?
A. routed IP traffic arriving on one VLAN and leaving through another VLAN
B. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same VLAN
C. IP traffic entering a physical port, port list, or static trunk
D. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same subnet of a multinetted VLAN
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which authentication protocol provides mutual authentication for both the supplicant and the
authentication server?
A. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
C. Microsoft CHAP version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)-Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Answer: C

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NO.4 When a router must determine which route to include in its route table, when does the router use
administrative distance in the decision.?
A. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from static configurations or
different routing protocols
B. when the router has learned about multiple routes from equal-cost paths to the same destination
C. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
D. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using
the same routing protocol
Answer: A

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NO.5 HP E5400 zl switches have the ability to mirror traffic from one switch to another. Which action should
you take when implementing remote mirroring?
A. Configure a connection-rate filter.
B. Enable the instrumentation monitor.
C. Enable jumbo frames.
D. Enable a bandwidth limit.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You must configure an HP E5406 zl switch to be the Owner of a VRID associated with VLAN 20. What
must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID?
A. It must use an address on a multi-netted VLAN interface.
B. It must match the router's address on the VLAN 20 interface.
C. It must use a classless address.
D. It must match the address assigned to VLAN 20 on the Backup router.
Answer: B

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NO.7 How does the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) improve network availability?
A. by providing redundant links between edge and core layers
B. by providing redundant connections to the Internet
C. by providing backup default gateways for client devices
D. by supporting the configuration of redundant gateways on VRRP-enabled clients
Answer: C

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NO.8 You must configure four HP E8212 zl switches and six HP E5406 zl switches to support Multiple
Instance Spanning Tree (MSTP) on a network. What must you do to ensure that all the switches join the
same MST region?
A. Configure the switches with identical Uplink Priorities for common switch-to-switch links.
B. Configure Bridge Priorities on each switch so that all MST instances have a different Root Bridge.
C. Configure the switches with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance mappings.
D. Configure all switch-to-switch links in each MST instance as tagged members of all VLANs.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is an advantage of locating intelligent routing at the edge of an enterprise network instead of only
in the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and MSTP for default gateway redundancy.
B. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
C. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies route summarization because only routers must support VLANs
only for directly connected users.
D. The edge-oriented strategy allows traffic to traverse the network after the routing decisions have been
made.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement is true about the HP E5400 zl switch Connection-rate Filtering feature?
A. It detects threats with both a signature-based engine and an anomaly-based engine that can detect
zero day attacks.
B. A connection-rate ACL can be used to allow some or all inbound traffic through a port that has been
throttled or blocked.
C. It uses sFlow traffic sampling to determine whether traffic activity represents an intrusion.
D. The connection-rate filter sensitivity is configurable per port, VLAN, or link aggregation group.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which mechanism enables two parties to agree on a symmetric key on their own without transmitting it
over the network?
A. Kerberos
B. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C. Diffie-Hellman exchange
D. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator has been tasked with implementing a dynamic port ACL on an HP E5400 zl Series
switch. Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A. It can be implemented as either a standard or extended ACL.
B. It filters switched IP traffic either inbound or outbound on a designated port.
C. It requires the use of 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication services on the switch.
D. It is used where clients with differing access needs are likely to use the same port.
E. Configuration of the ACL is done on the switch and then read dynamically by a RADIUS server when a
user connects.
F. It can be applied to either a single physical port or to a link aggregation group.
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 You must provide the capability for the Virtual IP address to be pinged if the Backup router assumes
the Master role when the Owner router fails. What is necessary to ensure this operation?
A. E8206(config)# router vrrp virtual-ip-ping
B. E8206(config)# vrrp 10 virtual-ip-ping
C. E8206(config)# router virtual-ip
D. E8206(config)# router ospf ip-ping
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is one security challenge that is specifically addressed by dynamically refreshing encryption keys?
A. Users forget their passwords and forget how to connect.
B. Hackers are more likely to crack a key when they have many frames encrypted with that key.
C. Asymmetric keys, which are more secure than symmetric keys, must be distributed dynamically.
D. Static encryptions keys can protect data's privacy, but not its integrity.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have an HP Networking Switch E5400 zl that has two configured VLANs. VLAN 100 has an IP
address range of 10.1.100.0/24 and is where the servers reside. VLAN 36 has an IP address range of
10.1.36.0/24 and is where the network clients reside. You configure an ACL with the following entries:
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq https
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ssh
When you apply this ACL statically to ports in VLAN 36, what is the effect on the clients located in VLAN
36?
A. They have no access because the ACL is misconfigured.
B. They cannot access anything in the 10.1.100.0 subnet because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
C. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but no access elsewhere.
D. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but full access to everything else
in the 10.1.100.0 subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When the following command is issued at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl switch at factory default settings,
which Spanning Tree version is enabled?
E5406(config)# spanning-tree
A. STP+
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: C

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NO.17 Your CIO wants you to investigate IT defense in depth. What does this mean?
A. You need to purchase a deep-packet inspection Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).
B. You need to upgrade your firewalls to next-generation firewalls.
C. You need to plan a comprehensive strategy that addresses security at many layers.
D. You need to leverage the network infrastructure built-in security features rather than look for
appliance-based solutions.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A company ¯ s he l p desk r eques t s access t o t he w eb i n t e rf ace o f va ri ous ne t w o r k i ng dev i ces . The
network administrator decides to implement a secure web interface using SSL. Which step is necessary
to complete this task on an HP E5400 zl switch?
A. import the certificate authority certificate
B. configure RADIUS for user login
C. generate a self-signed certificate
D. enable SSH
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which default gateway redundancy protocol is supported on HP E5400 zl switches?
A. XRRP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. FSRP
Answer: C

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NO.20 An administrator needs to create an ACL to block traffic from 192.168.10.23 to 192.168.10.100, which
are on the same subnet. Which type of ACL can be used to meet this need?
A. a standard ACL applied as Routed ACL (RACL)
B. an extended ACL applied as a Routed ACL (RACL)
C. a standard ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
D. an extended ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z15
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP E-Series Networking Products)
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Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which HP E-Series switches require the customer to purchase a separate power supply?
A. all modular switches
B. all E8200 zl or E5400 zl switches
C. all E8200 zl or E5400 zl switches sold without bundled modules
D. all switches that support PoE
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which information does a Layer 2 switch use to determine the correct port on which to forward traffic?
A. destination IP address
B. source IP address
C. destination MAC address
D. source MAC address
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the definition of a network?
A. a group of two or more computer systems linked together
B. a group of three or more computer systems linked together
C. a group of four or more computer systems linked together
D. a group of five or more computer systems linked together
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two elements of the HP Networking strategy help to lower customer TCO? (Select two.)
A. converged functionality
B. robust security solutions
C. advanced technology development
D. unified wired/wireless access
E. layer 3 switch support
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 What are some of the benefits that a customer gains from a network that is unified from the core to
the access layer with the ProVision ASIC family?
A. managed infrastructure, unified management, and unified support
B. unified infrastructure, unified management, and enterprise support
C. unified infrastructure, unified routing, and unified support
D. unified infrastructure, unified management, and unified support
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which type of network architecture conforms to user, application, and organizational needs, allowing
customers to maximize network productivity and reduce complexity?
A. unified network
B. secure mobility network
C. open network
D. adaptive network
Answer: D

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NO.7 You must approach an enterprise customer with a history of deploying single-vendor solutions and a
preference for a unified approach with a single operating system. Which product line should you use as
your lead?
A. V series
B. S series
C. E series
D. A series
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which device provides dedicated bandwidth to every connected workstation but is only capable of
forwarding data within the VLAN in which the traffic originates?
A. router
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Layer 3 switch
D. hub
Answer: B

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NO.9 If you select a fiber optic cable for the transmission medium, you must consider the mode for the
fiber cable. Fiber optic cables can be divided into two broad categories. What are they?
A. trimode and singlemode
B. quadmode and singlemode
C. automode and singlemode
D. multimode and singlemode
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which product line should you use for your lead when engaging a customer who likes the appeal of a
lifetime warranty?
A. S series
B. V series
C. A series
D. E series
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which HP Networking product line features smart-managed switches?
A. A series
B. E series
C. V series
D. S series Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the fastest Gigabit Ethernet available?
A. 1 Gb
B. 5 Gb
C. 10 Gb
D. 20 Gb
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which type of HP E-Series switches includes all of the features necessary for an access-layer switch
in an Adaptive Network, including Layer 2 switch, dynamic routing, convergence, management, and
security?
A. Layer 2 managed switches
B. ProVision ASIC switches
C. Lite Layer 3 switches
D. web-managed switches
Answer: B

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NO.14 A company ¯ s p ri va t e ne t w o r k i s d i v i ded i n t o seve r a l subne t s . W h i ch dev i ces can a ll o w tr a ffi c t o fl o w
between the subnets? (Select two.)
A. router
B. hub
C. standalone access point
D. Layer 2 switch
E. Layer 3 switch
Answer: A,E

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NO.15 HP offers two form factors for its switches. What are they?
A. fixed hub and modular
B. fixed port and modular
C. fixed port and modem
D. free port and modular
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M34
Exam Name: HP (HP Server Automation 9.x. Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which type of architecture does the term Multimaster Mesh describe?
A. the core component bundles distributed on multiple servers
B. multiple, coordinated Server Automation cores distributed across the network
C. multiple satellite servers configured to fail over to a single core
D. a core server running on multiple cluster nodes distributed across the network
Answer: B

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NO.2 How do the core and the agent communicate?
A. SA bus
B. Global Shell
C. SSL tunnel
D. SSH tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Which user interface is shown in the exhibit?
A. HP Server Automation Web Client
B. HP Server Automation Global Shell Client
C. HP Server Automation Infrastructure Client
D. HP Server Automation Client
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which Application Deployment Manager application components require explicit rollback and undeploy
instructions for removal?
A. code components
B. application configurations
C. packages from the Server Automation library
D. Operations Orchestration flows
Answer: D

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NO.5 The agent communications test can only be run from which HP Server Automation component?
A. SA Client
B. SA Web Client
C. Global Shell
D. Core CLI
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y32
Exam Name: HP (Design and Troubleshooting Open Standard Networks)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. What is the impact of the user's actions?
A. Internet connectivity to subnet 20 users is broken.
B. STP Root Bridge of Subnet 20 moves.
C. All Subnet 20 traffic is routed through Subnet 30.
D. STP alternate path selection remains unchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Based on these basic facts, what can you "rule out" as possible causes of this problem? (Select three.)
A. the external gateway having no route to VLAN 2
B. misconfigured clients in VLAN1
C. a transient layer 1 issue
D. the firewall enabled on the client causing connectivity issues
E. a loop in VLAN1
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. Which action can you take that will help you
discover this new link?
A. Investigate switch syslog information for gateway changes.
B. Compare route tables of both routers.
C. Review LLDP information on subnet 20 root bridge.
D. Follow path cost to root from subnet 20.
E. Initiate a traceroute from both subnets.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Which issue does the Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) show?
A. out of phase
B. extensive attenuation
C. loss of [optical] signal
D. bend or kink in the optical cable
E. low frequency roll-off C:\Pasban Work\Cert Paper
Exams\HP\HP0-Y32\HP0-Y32-A-Extracted\HP0-Y32-A-Extracted\HP0-Y32-A\23.JPG
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which step will provide helpful information about the issue?
A. Analyze the port statistics for the client you are pinging from.
B. Compare the arp table entries on the client when it works and when it does not.
C. Analyze the port statistics for the switch to which the client is connected.
D. Analyze the port statistics for all clients in VLAN 2 when the problem occurs.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. Which link transitions are blocked on subnet
20?
A. link from 20b to 20c
B. link from 20a to 20c
C. link from 20a to 20b
D. link from 20c to 30b
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
You need to limit the amount of broadcast traffic in this customer's network. In order to do so, you add a
second VLAN, VLAN2 (10.0.1.0/24). Now, clients on VLAN2 cannot reach the Internet and cannot ping
clients on VLAN1. They can successfully ping the default gateway (10.0.1.1). What should you do first to
determine the cause of the problem?
A. Disable broadcast limiting on the core switch.
B. Check the ISP's firewall settings and modify accordingly.
C. Request the configuration of the network devices.
D. Request a network trace from the ISP.
E. Get the MAC address table of the network devices.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You install new category 6a home run network cables for all users. You test a random sampling of the
cables, and they all pass. Users are complaining about dropped packets, slowness, and other intermittent
results. What is the best tool to use for initial troubleshooting?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
B. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)
C. Packet Analyzer
D. HP Intelligent Communications Manager (ICM)
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are working with a customer who has reported connectivity issues on a specific VLAN. All of their
clients were previously in VLAN1 until VLAN10 was added in order to limit the amount of broadcast traffic.
Now, the clients on VLAN10 cannot reach the Internet. These clients cannot ping clients on VLAN1, but
can successfully ping the default gateway. Which information will help you troubleshoot this problem?
(Select two.)
A. network topology map
B. uptime of the network devices
C. network IP addressing scheme
D. names of all VLANS
E. a list of the NTP servers on the network
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
You install two E5400 zl Series switches and connect them with a two-port static trunk. All hosts on both
switches are in VLAN 20. However, some hosts on Core 1 cannot ping some hosts on Core 2 and vice
versa. All hosts can ping all hosts on their own switch. Event logs on the two switches do not show
significant errors. What should you do to determine the cause of this connectivity issue? (Select three.)
A. Use traceroute to determine which device is dropping the ping packets.
B. Verify the trunk configuration on each core switch.
C. Change the IP address for the default VLAN on Core 2 so that it is in the same subnet as the default
VLAN on Core 1.
D. Verify physical connectivity between the switches.
E. Use LLDP to check the identities of the devices and their neighbors.
Answer: BDE

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Exam Code: HP2-B71
Exam Name: HP (HP Secure Prescription Printing Solutions Sales)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Where does the healthcare industry rank in the amount of paper used by an industry?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. fourth
Answer: A

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NO.2 How does the United States Government encourage the use of electronic medical records
(EMRs)?
A. by providing tax breaks for facilities that use EMR systems
B. by providing financial incentives to facilities under the economic stimulus package
C. by directing Medicare patients to facilities with EMRsystems
D. by certifying only facilities using EMR systems
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are key business drivers in the healthcare industry? (Select two.)
A. containing costs
B. complying with insurance company paperwork
C. reducing the number of medical errors
D. providing healthcare for the uninsured
E. aging clinical staffs
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which processes does e-prescribing involve?
A. Facsimile
B. direct computer-to-computer transfer of data
C. emailing
D. prescription encryption
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the most common method of obtaining a fraudulent prescription, according to the National
Association of Chain Drug Stores?
A. altering a handwritten prescription
B. doctor shopping
C. stealing a preprinted prescription pad
D. retrieving prescriptions from the garbage
Answer: B

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